philosophically speaking is the absence of any objective meaning or inherent purpose in life a sort of meaning in in of itself?

Answer 1

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I wouldn't say so. One might be tempted to say it means that only subjective meaning and purpose exist, but that isn't necessarily so. In the absence of minds, no meaning or purpose, of any kind, exists. 

Answer 2

There are two components:  object-ive as atomic, physis; and subject-ive as you,

If you subjectively decide that there's no objectivity, that's you as Jean-Paul Sartre, Jr., being brave while looking at or even into the abyss, like the "Republic" Guardians, who are portrayed by Plato as "Sartres."  Unlike Heidegger, Plato didn't trust emo-Nietzschean poets, but posited the Overman as literally ascending up into the clear Sun Light of Truth, Energy, Origin.  Plato might have agreed with Nietzsche that da Vinci and Goethe, as Overmen, those souls who were maslowian self-actualizers, escaped the herd or Cave dwellers.

So, yes, if one is not a Plotinus, but a Sartre, one plays his cards to the best of his ability...it's the rational, mature thing to do:  "Accentuate the positive, eliminate the negative, and don't mess with Mr. Inbetween." https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Maslow's_hierarchy_o... and Johnny Mercer's https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=f3jdbFOidds This entire pov arises as mankind in the 1880s-1980s were going through conditions objectively worse than early 21st c stress conditions.  (Note the Bobby Soxer, now doubtless a great grandmother, as being quite similar psychologically, and even in outward appearance, to females of a similar age today.  Maslow's research began in that same end-of-WWII period.)

Answer 3

If you or anyone else sees meaning in that, then it has meaning, but...

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I'd like to see you PROVE  that there's no objective meaning or inherent purpose in life 

Answer 4

sounds like it could be that

Answer 5

You can so argue, if the inclination strikes you.