I've created a fake scenario based question for a class I'm taking. Based on PT complaint please give a "theory" on what could be going on?

History: 

PT came into the Emergency Room with a self inflicted GSW that went from his medial thigh and out through his lateral knee on 12/1/2000. 

PT endorses pain in the calf when dorsiflexing the left foot, and pain in calf when trying to bare weight, states there are "pins/needles" sensation in the left foot that are painful, numbness in left foot, mainly on the plantar aspect, and also some weakness with big toe flexion. 

Exam: CT Angiography Lower Extremity Left 12/1/2000

IMPRESSION: 

Soft tissue gas and fat stranding/edema along the tract of

the penetrating injury in the left lower extremity without evidence of acute vascular injury. Low-density fluid posterior to the left knee joint may represent a Baker's cyst. However, in the context of trauma, a hematoma is not completely excluded 12/1/2000

Exam: MRI Knee w/o Contrast Left 1/26/2001

Findings: 

No knee joint effusion. Lobulated minimally septated popliteal cyst measures up to 4.5 x 4.5 x 1.5 cm. Separate mid posterior left knee soft tissue mass is seen outside the semimembranosus-gastrocnemius bursa. The hematoma is hyperintense on both the fat and fluid sensitive sequences with a circumferential low signal hemosiderin rim. This hematoma is located in medial head of the gastrocnemius muscle superficial to the popliteus neurovascular structures. No popliteal vascular injury seen. Posterior tibial nerve, common peroneal nerve, cruciate ligaments, Medial collateral ligamentous complex, extensor mechanism normal. 

Update:

I've created a fake scenario-based question for a class I'm taking. Based on a PT complaint, what could be going on?

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