Anonymous asked in Politics & GovernmentGovernment · 1 month ago

should I support Israel more than Palestine ?

Israel offered always peace to palestine.

there are jews for palestine too.

israel never attacked palestine for first.

3 Answers

  • Gorgia
    Lv 4
    1 month ago
    Favorite Answer

    I support Israel 🇮🇱. 

  • Robert
    Lv 6
    1 month ago


    The "Palestinian" Arabs have autonomy under the Oslo Accords, referred to as: the "Palestinian Territories". Although there is a: "State of Palestine" place-card at the Arab-dominated United Nations, in reality there is no such state.

    “Palestine” is the Roman-imposed rename of Israel / Judah, used by the Romans for attempting to negate Israel as the name for the land, and today used likewise by the “Palestinian” Arabs and their primarily anti-Semitic supporters.

    From where did “Palestine” as a name imposed on the land of Israel, come?

    The Romans imposed the name “Palæstina” (“Palestine”) on Roman-occupied Judah / Israel, resurrecting the name from the defunct much smaller region of “Philistia” (Hebrew: פלשת , Pleshet), within which had previously been the Philistine five city kingdoms.

    [“Philistia” boundaries: From its south (approx. today’s Gaza) from Wadi El-Arish, to its North the Yarkon River (approx. today’s Jaffa), at its East the Kingdom of Judah, and to its West the Mediterranean Sea]:

    The Philistines had been destroyed by the Babylonians under Nebuchadnezzar in 603/4 BCE / 1263 BH–1262 BH.

    See Page 13 of:

    New Discoveries Among the Philistines: Archaeological and Textual Considerations

    by Michael G. Hasel - Southern Adventist University:

    The “Palestinian” Arabs have no connection with the ancient Philistines.

    After the disappearance of the Philistines, the Roman occupiers of Israel/Judah resurrected the name “Palestine”, to impose it on the much larger region of Jewish Israel/ Judah:

    - - - - Start of extract: - - - -

    “After crushing the [Jewish] Bar Kokhba revolt [135 CE / 779 BH–778 BH], the Roman Emperor Hadrian applied [imposed] the name Syria Palestina to the entire region, that had formerly included Judea province.”

    - - - - End of extract - - - -

    - - - - Start of extract: - - - -

    “[...] After Roman times the name [“Palestine”] had no official status until after [...] the end of rule by the Ottoman Empire, when it was adopted for one of the regions mandated to Great Britain [...]”.

    - - - - End of extract - - - -

    The “Palestinian” Arabs falsely-allege Israeli Jews all came from Europe. Some Jews are returnee-exiles, since the Jewish People have Judah heritage (“Jew”=citizen of “Judah”). Yet the Jewish People are indigenous to their ancestral homeland of Israel, with unbroken presence there from Biblical times:

    The use of the name “Palestine” to attempt to negate Israel as the name for the land is misleading, as there has never been any indigenous sovereign state of “Palestine”, that name having been imposed on the land of Israel / Judah by the Romans, and then resurrected for the British Mandate - Both Roman and British powers being foreign imperial rule. The only valid name for the land belongs to the Jewish indigenous sovereign states before the Re-establishment of Israel in 1948, which are “Israel” or “Judah”.

    Internationally-recognised history shows that the last indigenous sovereign state in the land of Israel (Roman occupier imposed-name “Palestine”), prior to the RE-establishment of Israel in 1948, was the Jewish Hasmonean Kingdom of Judah. It included the West Bank, Gaza, and Golan Heights. Capital (what is now East) Jerusalem / “Old City”; between 110 BCE / 754 BH and 63 BCE / 706 BH - Map:

    The Ottoman Turkish empire did not use any such political name as “Palestine”, but rather Ottoman-occupied Judah / Israel was within the Ottoman province of “Syria”.

    (Please see the source which I have put into the “Sources” area of this answer.)

    The following image shows the list of Ottoman Turkish provinces called “vilayets”, which the reader can see includes “Syria” but does not include any “Palestine”:

    By the end of 19th and early 20th centuries the “Syria” province of the Ottoman Turkish empire included the following administrative districts:

    - - - - Start of extract: - - - -

    “[...] the southern sub-provinces of Ottoman Syria administrative region, includ[ed] by the end of 19th and early 20th century

    the Mutasarrifate of Jerusalem,

    the Nablus Sanjak

    and Acre Sanjak (under Beirut Vilayet from 1888 and previously under Syria Vilayet) [...]”.

    [Note: I have added some carrier returns.]

    - - - - End of extract - - - -

    “Palestine” was not used as a political name by the Turkish Ottoman Empire for their occupation of Judah / Israel. The name “Palestine” is not even a valid geographical name; a correct geographical name for the region is “Levant”. Use of the name “Palestine” is likely due to the Romans having imposed the name “Palestina” (Palestine) on Roman-occupied Jewish Judah / Israel.

    Although some 19th century maps for the land are entitled “Palestine” (the Roman-imposed rename), on many such maps the land itself is correctly labeled: “Judea” and “Samaria” (the two former Jewish Kingdoms).

    Bible: The Jewish Scriptures (aka “Old” Testament) refers to a “Philistia” region which was much smaller than Israel (see “Philistia” boundaries above).

    The Christian Scriptures (aka “New” Testament) does NOT refer to “Palestine”, but does have a reference to the Land of “ISRAEL” - See Matthew 2:21.

    The Romans imposed the name “Palestine” onto the land of Israel as an attempt to sever the Jewish People’s connection to their land. The “Palestinian” Arabs, likewise use the Roman-imposed rename “Palestine” for attempting to negate Israel as the name for the land. They also falsely-backdate (retroactively-apply) the name “Palestine” to prior Roman times when the land had been called Israel / Judah; even using it for earlier Biblical times when the land was called “Canaan”.

    The League of Nations in 1921 resurrected (as had the Romans) the name “Palestine”, this time for the British Mandate, but now imposing it on an even larger region (below):

    There has never been an indigenous “Palestine” / Arab sovereign state in the land of Israel upon which the “Palestinian” Arabs could base any claim to any part of Israel.

    Following the Ottoman Turkish defeat in the First World War, the League of Nations in 1921 resurrecting the name “Palestine” from Roman occupation, authorized a British Mandate. Irrespective of race or religion citizens of the British Mandate became: “Palestinian”. (Specimen 1947 British “Government of Palestine” passport: “Palestinian citizen”.)

    The Media of the time referred to Mandate inhabitants, as:

    “Palestinian Arabs”, / “Palestinian Jews”, or as: “Arabs” / “Jews”.

    An administrative region ruled by a foreign imperial power, it was an area that later would be today’s: Jordan, Israel, and the Palestinian Territories - Please compare the second and third maps down, at:

    The “Palestinian Arabs” dropped the name “Arab” so you should not understand they mostly originate from Foreign-Arab-Migrant-Workers who came to the land of Israel just prior to, and during the British Mandate, to take advantage of higher wages through Jewish returnee-exiles - See “Arab Immigration to Historic Palestine: A Survey”, by Richard Mather:

    The “Palestinian” Arabs having considered themselves to be Arab only, this is why they were opposed to being called a “People” until the 1960’s, when they decided it fitted with their intention to steal the land of Israel from its indigenous Jews.

    The British Mandate an “administrative region”:

    - - - - Start of extract: - - - -

    “The Mandatories, as opposed to colonial authorities, administered the territories in accordance with the terms of the mandate and on behalf of the League of Nations. [...]”.

    Page 70, Max Planck Yearbook of United Nations Law, edited by Armin Von Bogdandy, Rüdiger Wolfrum, Christiane E. Philipp.

    - - - - End of extract - - - -

    Israel was Re-established in 1948 following a United Nations Partition Plan under resolution 181, two-state solution. The Jews accepted it, but it requires more than one party to constitute an agreement. The “Palestinian” Arab response was to commence a civil war 1947 to instead take ALL the land of Israel, and ethnically-cleanse or murder the Jewish population.

    In 1948 the Arab countries invaded with the same objectives as the “Palestinian” Arabs, but lost the war. Jordan illegally-occupied both the West Bank, and also East Jerusalem from which the Jordanians expelled the Jews. Egypt illegally-occupied the Gaza strip. Neither of them offered these areas to the “Palestinian” Arabs.

    (Please see the sources which I have put into the “Sources” area of this answer.)

    Once the “Palestinian” Arabs had tricked Israel into giving them autonomy of part of the West Bank and the whole of Gaza under the Oslo Accords, the Palestinians since:

     > Do not sincerely negotiate any peace treaty.

     > Make an unverifiable false-claim to ALL the land of Israel.

     > Attack Israeli Jewish civilians as policy including children.

    No wonder anti-Semites display such emotional-support for the “Palestinian” Arabs !

    I hope this helps.


    Source(s): Additional Sources: Jordanian illegal-occupation of the West Bank and East Jerusalem: Egyptian illegal-occupation of Gaza: The Ottoman Turkish empire did not use any such political name as “Palestine”, but rather Ottoman-occupied Judah / Israel was within the Ottoman province of “Syria”:
  • James
    Lv 7
    1 month ago

    Personally, I don’t give a damn about either.

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