Anonymous asked in Arts & HumanitiesHistory · 1 month ago

Historically speaking, how did the Catholic Church oppress people in Mexico?

1 Answer

  • 1 month ago
    Favorite Answer

    Soon after the apparition of the Virgin of Guadalupe, “conversions began occurring at an astounding rate.” The missionaries were in awe of what was happening: “the Indians were coming from everywhere, from far away lands asking for the sacraments.”

    by 1539, only eight years after the apparition, almost nine million Indians had converted with the help of a small group of Franciscans.

    You are of course racist against Mexicans, they shouldn't be allowed to freely convert. And 9 million, why you are scandalized :)

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