Israel begins terrorizing the Gaza strip yet again, is this the end of Trumps Nobel peace prize bid ?


Actually Zionists stole the land first, Palestinians have always been the retaliators

7 Answers

  • 1 month ago
    Favorite Answer

    That agreement was just show off.  Wait and see after the election....

  • Robert
    Lv 6
    1 month ago

    Hello Chesticles,

    The Asker has linked an article reporting that the "Palestinian" Arab fired rockets at Israel before Israel responded.

    I invite the Asker to let us know what action his country would take were rockets to be fired upon it.

    The Israelis responded by targeting military targets (so the "Palestinian" Arab propaganda used by the Asker of:"terrorizing", is false):

    - - - - Start of extract: - - - -

    "The [Israeli] targets [in Gaza] included a weapons and explosives manufacturing factory, a compound used by Hamas for training and rocket experiments as well as an underground tunnel."

    Extract source:

    - - - - End of extract - - - -

    The Asker also wrote:

    "Actually Zionists stole the land first ..."

    My response:

    There has never been any indigenous “Palestine” sovereign state upon which the “Palestinian” Arabs could base any claim to the land of Israel. The only country to which the land could rightfully belong is Israel, since the last indigenous sovereign state in the land prior to the RE-establishment of Israel in 1948, was the Jewish Hasmonean Kingdom of Judah (see below).

    “Palestinian” Arab reverse-fact propaganda attempts to justify Arab invasion, theft, and illegal-occupation, of the ancestral homeland of the Jewish People - Israel, by alleging that:

    the Jews / Israel invaded the land and stole it from the “Palestinian” Arabs.

    The Palestinians deceive people by falsely-alleging they were in the land before the Jews, by:

    denying the roots of the Jewish People in the Jews ancestral homeland of Israel.

    The “Palestinian” Arabs falsely-allege Israeli Jews all came from Europe. Some Jews are returnee-exiles, since the Jewish People have Judah heritage (“Jew”=citizen of “Judah”). The Jewish People are indigenous to their ancestral homeland of Israel, with unbroken presence there from Biblical times:

    Internationally-recognised history shows that the last indigenous sovereign state in the land of Israel (Roman-imposed name "Palestine"), prior to the RE-establishment of Israel in 1948, was the Jewish Hasmonean Kingdom of Judah. It included the West Bank, Gaza, and Golan Heights. Capital (what is now East) Jerusalem / “Old City”; between 110 BCE / 754 BH and 63 BCE / 706 BH - Map:

    By comparison the “Palestinian Arabs” dropped the name “Arab” from their correct description because they do not want you to understand they mostly originate from Foreign-Arab-Migrant-Workers who came to the land of Israel just prior to, and during the British Mandate, to take advantage of higher wages through Jewish returnee-exiles:

    - - - - Start of extract: - - - -

    “[...] most Arabs in British Mandate Palestine were migrant workers and descendants of the 1832-1947 wave of Arab/Muslim immigration from Egypt, the Sudan, Lebanon, Syria, Jordan, Iraq, Saudi Arabia, Bahrain, Yemen, Libya, North Africa, Bosnia, India, Afghanistan, etc. While the British Mandate encouraged Arab immigration, it blocked Jewish immigration.”

    - - - - End of extract - - - -

    The “Palestinian” Arabs considering themselves Arab were opposed to being called a “people” until the 1960’s, when they decided it fitted with their intention to steal the land of Israel from its indigenous Jews:

    Just as Israel / the Jewish People logically cannot:


    or “illegally-settle”,

    or “be a colony on”,

    its OWN ancestral homeland,

    it also cannot logically “steal” nor “illegally-occupy”, its OWN ancestral homeland.

    Since the “Palestinian” Arabs arrived in the land of Israel well after its indigenous Jews, this makes the Arabs the “settler-colonists”. Therefore the reader might reasonably consider how it could be possible for there to be propaganda that the land has been stolen from the “Palestinian” Arabs, when this land was all Jewish before the Arabs ever came to the land of Israel.

    Many people are hoodwinked by “Palestinian” Arab falsehood-propaganda, due to the following:

    i) Lack of objective-information about the historical background;

    ii) Anti-Semitism;

    iii) False-validation of the “Palestinian” Arab falsehood-propaganda by the Arab-dominated United Nations. This is due to the U.N.’s block-vote of up to 56 Arab and additional Islamic-aligned countries, plus the influence of Arab oil money with consequential trading-power; compared to Israel being just one country;

    iv) The European Union which copies U.N. policies on Israel. The E.U. funds and politically-supports the “Palestinian” Arabs.

    In deploying their propaganda-falsehoods against Israel, the “Palestinian” Arabs usually find they are “pushing at an open door”, many people being Willing to believe them, while being Unwilling to verify if it is factual, due to anti-Semitism (about which they are often in denial).

    There has never been an indigenous sovereign state of “Palestine” upon which the “Palestinian” Arabs could base any claim to the land of Israel.

    Following the Ottoman Turkish defeat in the First World War, the League of Nations in 1921 resurrecting the name “Palestine” from Roman occupation, authorized a British Mandate, whose inhabitants were known as:

    “Palestinian Jews” / “Palestinian Arabs”. An administrative region ruled by a foreign imperial power, it was an area that later would be today’s:

    Jordan, Israel, and the Palestinian Territories - Please compare the second and third maps down, at:

    The prior Ottoman Turkish empire did not use any such political name as “Palestine”, but rather Ottoman-occupied Judah / Israel was within the Ottoman province of “Syria:

    From where did “Palestine” as a name imposed on the land of Israel, come?

    The Romans imposed the name “Palæstina” (“Palestine”) on Roman-occupied Judah / Israel, resurrecting the name from the defunct much smaller region of “Philistia” (Hebrew: פלשת , Pleshet; the “Palestinian” Arabs have no connection with the ancient Philistines.

    - - - - Start of extract: - - - -

    “After crushing the [Jewish] Bar Kokhba revolt [135 CE / 779 BH–778 BH], the Roman Emperor Hadrian applied [imposed] the name Syria Palestina to the entire region, that had formerly included Judea province.”

    - - - - End of extract - - - -

    - - - - Start of extract: - - - -

    “[...] After Roman times the name [“Palestine”] had no official status until after [...] the end of rule by the Ottoman Empire, when it was adopted for one of the regions mandated to Great Britain [...]”.

    - - - - End of extract - - - -

    Israel was Re-established in 1948 following a United Nations Partition Plan under resolution 181, which had sought to set up two states, one Jewish and one Arab.

    The then Palestinian Jewish Community had accepted the U.N. Partition Plan, but it requires more than one party to constitute an agreement. In 1947 the “Palestinian” Arab response was to start a civil war and terror to oppose the U.N. Partition Plan, instead take ALL the land of Israel, and ethnically-cleanse or murder the Jewish population from the Jews ancestral homeland of Israel:

    In 1948 the Arab countries attacked the newly Re-established State of Israel, but the Arabs lost the war. Jordan then illegally-occupied the West Bank, and also illegally-occupied East Jerusalem from which the Jordanians expelled the Jews. Egypt illegally-occupied the Gaza strip. Neither country offered these areas to the “Palestinian” Arabs.

    (Please see the sources which I have put into the “Sources” area of this answer.)

    “Palestinian” Arab propaganda falsely-alleges the Re-establishment of Israel caused: a “great injustice” / “nakba” (“catastrophe” / “disaster”) to the “Palestinian” Arabs.

    In reality:

     > The Palestinians violently rejected the Arab state of the United Nations Partition Plan;

     > Jordan and Egypt occupied the land proposed for an Arab state under the U.N. Partition Plan (approximating to the West Bank and Gaza);

     > BOTH Arabs and Jews, became war-refugees;

     > The Palestinians falsely-claim with no evidence of any such policy that they were expelled from the land; Jews were indeed expelled by the Arabs as policy. Palestinians live and work in Israel.

    Therefore the reader is entitled to be skeptical about “Palestinian” Arab propaganda alleging a fantasy-injustice.

    I hope this helps.


    Attachment image
    Source(s): Additional Sources to which reference is made in my answer: Jordanian illegal-occupation of the West Bank and East Jerusalem: Egyptian illegal-occupation of Gaza:
  • Anonymous
    1 month ago

    Wrong again CNN feeding you bullshit. Isreal was attacked again. 

  • Anonymous
    1 month ago

    Lol they didnt make peace with invaders op, they made peace with UAE.

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  • Anonymous
    1 month ago

    War is peace.

    Freedom is slavery.

    Ignorance is strength.

    Welcome to Trumps America. 

  • 1 month ago

    So another apologist who doesn't understand the word "retaliates" because of course terrorists should be able to kill as they please without nasty Israelis tying to defend themselves. These Peace Deals show that parts of the Muslim world will no longer give support to Palestinian dreams of destroying Israel or be held back by Palestinian demands that no Muslim works with any Israeli. Even Muslims are sick and tired of Palestinians and their incessant issuing of demands.

  • Anonymous
    1 month ago

    Gaza should be wiped off the map.

    Source(s): Jewish
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