Anonymous
Anonymous asked in Politics & GovernmentPolitics · 2 months ago

What year did racism stop being a legitimate factor for inequality in the US?

Is there any data that can be used to come up with a date? 

If you think otherwise, how did you come to that conclusion and what kind of data do you have to support that? 

I'm not trying to troll anyone. I just have a weird way of thinking about these things I guess 😂

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  • 2 months ago
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    1868.  The 14th amendment made racism illegitimate.  It confirmed that every citizen has the same rights of citizenship despite color.  From that point on, systematic racism, discrimination, segregation, etc. because unconstitutional.

    However, it took the Supreme Court 86 years to catch up.  Brown v. Board of Education was the decision that made 'separate but equal' illegal.  That was 1954.

    Does racial inequality still exist?  Well, yes.  I'll give you one example.  The state of Alabama has a region called the 'Black Belt'.  It USED to be an area of rich black soil, perfect for growing cotton.  Today it's a region of counties that have black majorities. 

    There's a map here:

    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Black_Belt_%28region...

     

    A couple of years ago the state govt. decided to require a special ID to vote.  You could get this ID at any state DMV office.  As soon as they passed this law, they closed EVERY DMV office in EVERY ONE of these counties!  Tell me that wasn't racism in action?

  • Anonymous
    2 months ago

    Ten days and 2 hours 53 minutes after your maternal grandfather's birthday on the grigorian calender.

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