Jeffrey K asked in SportsBaseball · 1 month ago

In MLB, would a run count if it scores before a non force out and a force play 3rd out?

Runners on 2nd and 3rd with 1 out. Grounder to short, he throws to 3rd base, gets runner advancing from 2nd base out, runner from 3rd reaches home, but batter falls down and a throw to 1st gets him out. Does the run count? 

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  • 1 month ago
    Favorite Answer

    No the run would not count.

    No runs can score on a play if the 3rd out is made by way of a force out (on any runner, including tagging a runner before he reaches a base he reaches a base he's forced to advance to) or by getting the batter-runner out by any method before he reaches 1st base.

    In your example the 3rd out was the batter-runner before he reached 1st base, therefore no runs can score on the play, no matter what circumstances lead up to that moment.

    Had the outs been reversed, the run could score - for example same scenario but lets say its a ground ball to first base - first baseman fields ball, steps on 1st base for the 2nd out then fires across the diamond to get the 3rd out on R2 as he slides into 3rd base.

    This would be a timing play and the home plate umpire would be responsible to make a judgement call of whether R3 touched home plate prior to the 3rd out being recorded. If the umpire's call is that R3 scored before the out then the run counts.

  • David
    Lv 7
    1 month ago

    Yes, the run counts.  Because no force play was involved for the first out.

  • 1 month ago

    In that situation, no because they did complete the double play at first. However if the third out had been in a run down situation and the runner scored before the runner was tagged out the run would count.

  • 1 month ago

    No. The hitter never reached 1st base safely.  The run does not count. 

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