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How can a man say a child is his if he never gave birth?

Shouldn’t the child be considered just the woman’s since she’s the one who carried the baby for 9 months?

20 Answers

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  • Foofa
    Lv 7
    1 month ago

    You've just given grounds for the negation of every child support order in the world. Which is why even most women wouldn't agree with that.

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  • e9601:
    Lv 6
    1 month ago

    Well sprout, it takes a man and a woman to produce a child. Therefore, the child so both theirs.

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  • 1 month ago

    Have your parents never had 'The Talk' with you ?

    #Sad.

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  • 1 month ago

    because he came in the chicken first..

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  • 1 month ago

    NEWSFLASH: 

    There is this little thing called "DNA".  This DNA links parents to their children.

    And, THAT is how a man can identify a child as his.  Regardless if he carried the baby, that child was put there by him.

    That is like saying an artist is not the artist because the paint he put on the canvas is no longer his, it is owned by the canvas. 

    Silly nonsense is what your "question" is.

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  • 1 month ago

    You are absolutely correct--if you ignore the last few thousand years-worth of law and Watson and Crick's Nobel Prize. Homeschooling is just totally sad, dude.

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  • 1 month ago

    Because if it were just the woman's she should be able to make it on her own. If it takes a joint effort to make the child then joint/shared custody just makes sense. If not, you could never enforce mandated child support.

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  • 1 month ago

    Do you need to take a science class?

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  • Petter
    Lv 7
    1 month ago

    It takes two to make it. Just because women get the burden of carrying it, doesn't make it more "theirs", imho.

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  • 1 month ago

    Because it's his DNA.

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