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James
Lv 7
James asked in Politics & GovernmentPolitics · 2 months ago

Would you be able to vote in the USA under the original requirements as laid out by the men who thought an electoral college was a good idea?

In case you are not aware, that would be a white male land owner over 21 years old.

6 Answers

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  • Tmess2
    Lv 7
    2 months ago

    Actually, the Constitution did not expressly lay out any eligibility requirements.  Instead, it provided that states had to use the same rules that applied to the largest house of the state legislature.  Now, in practice, in all states that meant males.  In many states, that included some property requirement.

    As to 21, at the time, the age of majority was 21.  You could not own property in your own right or sign a contract before you were 21.  

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  • Foofa
    Lv 7
    2 months ago

    Nope. But then the place where I live was a mere colony of Spain at that time.

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  • Jeff D
    Lv 7
    2 months ago

    They also came up with the Bill of Rights.  Should we get rid of those too?

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    • Jeff D
      Lv 7
      1 month agoReport

      Your entire premise seems to be that since we didn't have universal sufferage, nothing in the Constitution is any good.  That's not much of an argument, tbh, as nobody had universal sufferage in 1787.

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  • 2 months ago

    The question of enfranchisement was left up to individual states, but it is true that it was essentially only white men with property in the early days. I am a white male with a house, so I guess that gets me in.

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  • abdul
    Lv 7
    2 months ago

    Yes, I would be able to vote. However, amendments have changed those prerequisites to voting to the system we use today.

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  • Anonymous
    2 months ago

    Obviously you cannot read.

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