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Anonymous asked in Social ScienceGender Studies · 1 month ago

WORLD HISTORY?

Why was the Reform Bill of 1832 a political landmark?

     

    a. It increased the number of male voters by about 50 percent and set a precedent for widening suffrage further.

 

  b. It granted a powerful voice to the numerically superior but materially poorer south and demonstrated the weakness of industry.

   

 c. It gave universal suffrage to all men over the age of twenty-five and to women who held a sufficient amount of property.

   

d. It granted women the right to initiate divorce on grounds other than abandonment, specifically abuse of themselves or their children.

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  • Foofa
    Lv 7
    1 month ago

    Do your own homework.

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  • 1 month ago

    "Why was the Reform Bill of 1832 a political landmark?"

    1832 gave ALL property owners in Britain the vote and not just the nobles.  This was a small step forward.  Bigger steps came in the late 1800's for more common men.  This was in alignment with new Republics that were not monarchs like the US and France (post revolution).  This is also the short period where it specifically listed males, as the duty to fight in war for the country became the non-landowner qualification.

    But the biggest change came  after the Great war in 1918.  That took a million 18+ year old boys to die in trenches so that all common men and women got the right to vote.  Men aged 21, women aged 30 until 1928 where it changed to 21 for all.  This was to balance the lack of young men that had perished in the war.  Those men (boys) that died would NOT have been eligible to vote in the election after the war under the rules that existed at the time.

    .

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  • 1 month ago

    If you wasn't there in the 1800's, what happened to the you?

    Incidentally, while eating flesh with flies?

    ◄ Colossians 3:3 ►

    For you died, and your life is now hidden with Christ in God.

    Seeing that you were dead

    [al-Baqarah 2:28]

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