Erika asked in Society & CultureLanguages · 1 month ago

It has a good taste.?

Please tell me why we use “a” for these sentenses.

1.Have “A” good time.

2.It has “A” good taste.

I think “time” and “taste” are uncountable nouns in this case, but why can we use “A”??

Update:

Can we count “time” and “taste”????

Of course I know “TIME” has two meanings.

1.I’ve been to America three times.

2.Have a good time.

“TIME” used in 1 and 2 are different meanings and I know “TIME” in 1 is countable.

But why must we use “A” for sentence 2??

I think “A” is used for countable noun.

3 Answers

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  • RE
    Lv 7
    1 month ago
    Favorite Answer

    1. Because it is not the only possible good time. Time in the general sense is uncountable, but in the phrase "good time" it is countable, because it means "good experience" and there are many possible good experiences.

    2. Because it is not the only possible good taste, but one of many. Taste in the general sense [as in "she has good taste"] is uncountable, but in the sense of food it is countable because it means "agreeable flavor" and there are many possible good flavors.

    That's why the different meanings of a noun are important, because some of them are countable and others are uncountable.

  • John
    Lv 7
    1 month ago

    When you say IT has a good taste you are referring to one, single thing. "Good taste" is actually not just uncountable but indefinable.

    • Erika1 month agoReport

      Thank you!

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  • 1 month ago

    A means 1 number. It is the first letter of the alphabet and it is why we use it to represent a single noun. In your case, you are talking about one single good time and one good taste. Therefore, "A" makes sense.

    • Erika1 month agoReport

      Thank you!

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