Emma asked in Society & CultureLanguages · 2 months ago

What's the difference between "she didn't want to speak to me" and "she didn't want to be speaking to me"? ?

I don't get it. Thanks in advance. 

8 Answers

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  • Cogito
    Lv 7
    2 months ago
    Favorite Answer

    I don't know about the USA, but in the UK, "She didn't want to speak to me," means that she was not happy to carry on a conversation with me.  She may have actually spoken to me  or she may not.  That's not specified.

    However, "She didn't want to be speaking to me," means that she was, in fact, speaking to you but was unhappy about doing so.

    • Pontus
      Lv 7
      2 months agoReport

      true of the USA as well.

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  • 2 months ago

    What Cogito says is right of course, but I'll just add that 'She didn't want to be speaking to me' may also mean 'She didn't want to be IN THE HABIT of speaking with me'.

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  • 2 months ago

    The first is that she definitely did not speak. The second could be taking as she is reluctantly "speaking", but doesn't want to be speaking.

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  • 2 months ago

    Is this for English class? or just a question?

    It means the same thing. "She doesn't want to talk to you" The sentence with "be" is improper/slang/ghetto

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  • 2 months ago

    The second is more emotional

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  • Chiaro
    Lv 5
    2 months ago

    The second one could be that she was just busy or not up to it at the moment. The first one sounds like she had already decided that whatever the circumstance, she does not want to speak to you.

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  • Anonymous
    2 months ago

    They are slightly different tenses. The first is a past event, the second suggests she may go on not wanting to speak.

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  • Anonymous
    2 months ago

    There's no difference. These mean the same thing.

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