dear americans can you help me about a doubt about spanish americans?
I know the difference between hispanic and latino if I am not wrong hispanic includes spaniards and not brazilians viceversa the latinos.
However my question is why are not very few spanish americans today? A big part od states of usa were under spain control? California, New Mexico, Florida, texas were of spain and later mexico excluding florida.
Did spaniard back to spain? I am talking about the spanish colonists.Choosing the term spaniard, spaniard are the eight largest group off hispanic latino americans. 50 milionfs have spanish origins from latin america while 10 milions spaniard americans from spain and spanish colonists.. On the voice spaniards diaspora wikipedia said 2,5 mmilions of americans have spanish ancestry, on the voice spaniards and on tthe part of the spanish ancestry wikipedia said that:
10,017,244 Americans who identify themselves with Spanish ancestry.26,735,713 (53.0%) (8.7% of total U.S. population) Hispanics in the United States are white (also mixed with other European origins), others are different mixes or races but with Spaniard ancestry.
my question is how many americans have spanish origins today from spain and from white hispanic colonists? sorry for my english I used translate
- iammclaneLv 72 months agoFavorite Answer
"Anglos" (aka European Americans who speak English) generally do not distinguish between Spanish-speakers and Portuguese-speakers. There are no definitions for "Latino/a" or "Hispanic" agreed-upon by all Americans (or even by a majority of them).
Regarding your questions about what happened to the Spanish-speaking inhabitants of those portions of New Spain that eventually became part of the USA, some of them returned to Spain or moved elsewhere in the hemisphere - but most stayed where they were and became citizens of the USA. That was simply a matter of finances for most families. If they could afford to leave, they may have chosen to do so - but obviously if they didn't have the means to leave, it was more practical to remain where they were. Except for California, where Anglos had fomented a coup against Spanish authorities and were somewhat hostile toward Spanish-speakers, most of the western states were not very attractive to Anglos, so becoming part of the USA did not mean a revolutionary change to the way of life that the Spanish-speaking families had been accustomed to for centuries. (In Texas, the Apache and Commanche had discouraged Spanish settlement, so the Anglo revolt there only affected life for large numbers of Spanish-speaking families in the southern-most reaches, along the Rio Grande. Today, many of these families, including many large-scale land-owning ranchers, still make up a large part of the population in the former northern states of Mexico, which reached into current-day Utah, Wyoming, and Kansas.
Florida is a different situation, since it was essentially invaded and conquered by Andrew Jackson's army, and life immediately became difficult for the remaining Spanish speakers. The majority of them fled - not to Spain, but into the Caribbean. Ironically, Florida is now home to a very large and robust Spanish-speaking population from Cuba and other islands, as well as mainland origins. New York City has also long been home to very large Spanish-speaking communities. The American imperial period, roughly from 1890 to 1960, was the basis for most of that immigration. It was augmented as a result of the communist revolution in Cuba.
- David B.Lv 72 months ago
I'm not sure what you want to know but I will correct you on one thing Spaniards are only those that are from Spain. All those that are of Spanish descent that reside in Central and South America, as well as the United States, are something other than Spaniards. The only exception to this would be those in Brazil due to the fact that it was the Portuguese that colonized Brazil. You are mixing two different things together. Ethnicity ( national origin) with race. Both Portuguese and Spanish people are European as well as Caucasian.