Anonymous
Anonymous asked in Science & MathematicsMathematics · 9 months ago

# If 1+1=2, then why doesn't 2+2=1?

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• the only value for 2x = 2(2x) is 0, so every other case is a noooo

• Two plus two is four

Minus one that's three, quick maths

• Because 2 plus 2 equals 4

• Anonymous
9 months ago

Wait, I've got a better one...

If 3² + 4² = 5² and 3³ + 4³ + 5³ = 6³, then why doesn't 3⁴ + 4⁴ + 5⁴ + 6⁴ = 7⁴?

• 1 + 1 = 2

2 + 2 = 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 or 4

• Read "1+" as "the number after", and so "2+" as "the number after the number after".

1+1=2: the number after 1 is 2, meaning 1 is LESS THAN 2.

2+2=1: the number after the number after 2 is 1, meaning 2 is LESS THAN 1.

Both of these things cannot be true as one number cannot be simultaneously less than and greater than the same (second) number. That is not how a number line works. :)

• :-

Examples

2 apple + 2 apples = 4 apples

2 g + 2 g = 4 g

2 miles + 2 miles = 4 miles

2 hours + 2 hours = 4 hours

• Because the rules do not cater for idiots.

• Anonymous
9 months ago

I quite understand why you posted this question anonymously. Which is why I'm responding anonymously. Like you being ashamed to be seen asking such a question, I'd be ashamed to be seen responding to such a troll.

Do I really have to tell you this? Think about it. If you have one apple in a basket and add another apple, how many apples are in the basket?

If you have two apples in the basket and add two more, how many are in the basket, now? Hint: It's not one.

Now go back under the bridge and wait for another goat to come along.

• Anonymous
9 months ago

Because it doesn’t