Anonymous asked in Social ScienceGender Studies · 2 weeks ago

How do feminists determine whether or not a negative outcome for a woman was due to sexism ?

8 Answers

  • Foofa
    Lv 7
    1 week ago

    Based on this morning's Yahoo piece on Elizabeth Warren, not very accurately. Sometimes people just don't like your ideas.

  • Anonymous
    2 weeks ago

    Feminists assume any observed difference between men and women must be caused by sexism against women.  

  • 2 weeks ago

    by being sexist and leaping to conclusions

  • 2 weeks ago

    They don’t, they just automatically assume things from mistaken beliefs and views.

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  • rick
    Lv 7
    2 weeks ago

    Easy! If it didn't come out the way they wanted, it was because of sexism. No woman EVER failed, because she wasn't capable, wasn't prepared, or didn't try hard enough. Random factors, such as "luck of the draw". weather, and even statistical odds don't factor in either. It was "sexism", at fault!

  • Anonymous
    2 weeks ago

    Erm, by whether or not men (or anyone) was acting sexist and comparing it to what happened to men. It's really not that difficult.

    • Anonymous2 weeks agoReport

      You are also assuming that I’m referring to micro level interactions. What about systemic problems?

  • 2 weeks ago

    "How do feminists determine whether or not a negative outcome for a woman was due to sexism ?"

    They way they SHOULD determine that it the same way as everyone else does.  For example, I knew I was being legally discriminated against as a man, when a job application I was interested in was not available for men as stated in the newspaper ad I was reading.  That discrimination was allowed by the state against men just because I was a man.

    That is known legal discrimination sanctioned by the state ... the worst kind of discrimination that can occur.  Fortunately for women, that kind of discrimination no longer exists by law against them.  The same is not true for men of course.  This means that feminists should already understand that women suffer no legal discrimination.

    If you are speaking about the far less serious social discrimination that occurs at the individual level, then once again, it is the same for everyone.  In this case, no one can ever really be sure because we are dealing with human bias.  And everyone is guilty of this, while anyone can be a victim of this.  Thankfully most people who do personally discriminate don't have much power or authority like the state does.


  • Just presume that the negative outcome was due to sexism and demand that the accused prove that they aren't guilty of being sexist.  That seems to work for internet-era feminists.

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