Hale asked in Arts & HumanitiesHistory · 10 months ago

was the term " person of color" in any of the US founding documents?

11 Answers

    Lv 7
    10 months ago

    was the TERM ... " person of color " in ANY of the US founding documents ?

    before one could answer please SPECIFY

    what the author is calling FOUNDING DOCUMENTS

    and WHY is the term " person of color " a point of interest

    for example the Declaration of INDEPENDENCE ( which is about the concept of a KING having the right to RULE RELIGIONS promotion that KINGS were ordained by GOD which the "founding fathers " were REJECTING )

    addresses the term ... ALL MEN ..

    . MALE HUMAN beings REALITY is the variation in skin color

    according to the AMERICAN HERITAGE GUIDE

    the term "person of Color " dates to 1796 was initially used to refer to LIGHT SKINNED people of MIXED African and European heritage

    .....The US CONSTITUTION was ratified in 1789

    in 1796 John Adams is elected the 2nd PRESIDENT

    and Thomas Jefferson is the Vice president

    the COUNTRY is only in its INFANCY

    tells me that people were having SEXUAL intercourse ( consensual or non consensual ) resulting in reproduction

    in South Carolina and deep south the term was used to

    DISTINGUISH between SLAVES that were "mostly " Black or *****

    and "FREE PEOPLE " who were "mulatto" or MIXED ..

    ... indicating SLAVE OWNERS were having sexual intercourse


    which they viewed as PROPERTY and

    "USED" for their SEXUAL DESIRES and Enjoyment

    resulting in MIXED offspring with a variation in SKIN COLOR

    its unlikely BLACK MALE slaves were or had access or opportunity

    to engage in sexual intercourse or RAPE the FEMALES of their WHITE MASTERS

    and if any relationship occurred initiated by a white female the premise was it was a crime of rape by the black male or an excuse charge to hang a black person


    the " ALL WHITE " population many WHITE SLAVE masters eventually

    REALIZED the more and more slaves one owned

    made the ratio a problem say 1 to 10 50 100

    and FEARED REVOLT and retaliation

    one would only FEAR retaliation

    because one was aware of the REALITY

    what they were doing was WRONG

    and would not want slavery imposed on themselves

    according to S. Saris in the USA

    there are two main racial divides

    # 1 the BLACK _ WHITE delineation

    # 2 that of WHITES and Everybody else

    with the term whites being narrowly construed

  • 10 months ago

    No, it wasn't.

  • Greg
    Lv 6
    10 months ago

    No, that's a more recent terminology.

  • 10 months ago

    The closest we come to "person of color" is "all other persons" in the 3/5 compromise for calculating the number of people in a state. It is important to note, the constitution NEVER guaranteed initially one person one vote. If a man owned 100 slaves, he had 61 votes, his plus 3/5 of the number of the number of slaves that he owned.

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  • John P
    Lv 7
    10 months ago

    Probably not. In Britain I became aware of the expression probably in the 1970s. Before that people were simply "coloured", later "black". I associated the "n" word with American black people in historical times.

  • 10 months ago

    No, slavery was, saying it was just fine.

  • Anonymous
    10 months ago

    Yes it was and I still use it

  • Anonymous
    10 months ago

    You're so smart. I can barely stand it.

  • 10 months ago

    Everyone is zome colour.

  • 10 months ago

    I did not get your point.

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