Why do Trinitarians dishonestly translate John 8:58 and Exodus 3:14 as I AM?
When a better translation for both is
"(1) "Even before Abraham was born, I was (the Christ)."
(2) "I existed before Abraham was born."("I was"; "I existed"; "I have been")
(3) "I came into existence before Abraham was even born."
"I Will Be What I Will Be”
- Anonymous8 months agoFavorite Answer
Sadly, most who accept the pagan trinity doctrine as Scriptural simply believe what they are taught by the churches of cristendom. Rather than studying the Bible or history with a view to discerning the truth, they take cristendom's doctrines as the teachings of Christ - which they are not. The trinity, the immortality of the soul, hellfire, and the idea that people are meant to live in heaven rather than on the earth are all pagan teachings originally adopted by the Catholic church in order to have greater appeal to people involved in other religions. When the Protestant churches broke off from the Catholic church, they foolishly took with them these pagan traditions. Thus cristendom, with all of it's hellfire, three headed god, and hopes of living in heaven represents the "broad and spacious road leading off into destruction" that Jesus spoke of in Matthew 7:13-14
When And How Did The Trinity Doctrine Develop?
- R J LongLv 58 months ago
I m just going to develop Chi Girl's answer in case you don't read Greek. In the Greek, John 8:58 has "ego eimi" (English transliteration). "Ego" is Greek for "I". "Eimi" is the PRESENT first person singular form of the to be verb--in other words, "I am". Therefore, the OCD translation of the phrase in John 8:58 would be "I I am". Everybody who is not OCD is content with just the one "I". In NO POSSIBLE WORLD can "Ego eimi" be properly translated as "I was".
If you use the New World Translation to read Scripture, be advised that I have looked at it, and a second year Greek student could make a better translation. I say that because I have been a second year Greek student.
- DougLv 78 months ago
The Pharisees claimed Jesus blasphemed and they wanted to put him to death, after he referred to himself as "I Am". Seems like they knew precisely what he said AND what he actually meant. It's a shame that you don't.Source(s): www.askmeaboutgod.org
- Dennis SagtLv 78 months ago
English is my sole language, so I must rely on scholars for information. Let's say you're in the same situation. Everything else being equal, if nine experts say "I am" is the correct translation and one expert says "Even before...I was," whom would you believe, the nine or the one?
Do you read various views? If not, I advise it.
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- CharlesLv 58 months ago
John 8:58 says nothing about any trinity. "I AM" is the correct translation. There is only one 'I AM" and that is Jesus.
- Anonymous8 months ago
Let me ask you, even if the statement was grammatically accurate, would it matter? Jesus is still saying he was alive before Abraham. Even if it said "I was", it would've been the same thing. He'd been living for longer than 2000 years when he was born as a man.
- Chi girlLv 78 months ago
You are "dishonestly" not calling us Christians.
And you're demonstrating your JW ignorance of Koine Greek.
Both John 8:58 and Exodus 3:14 say: εγω ειμι = I am.Source(s): Greek Orthodox Christian
- Climate RealistLv 78 months ago
Are you a Greek scholar, who knows how to translate John 8:58, or a Hebrew scholar, who knows how to translate Exodus 3:14?
If not, I suggest that you have no basis for your claim that either verse was inaccurately translated.
- GodLv 58 months ago
Who cares? It's all nonsense anyway.
- Anonymous8 months ago
And what is there to say your interpretation is right and theirs is wrong or vice versa? No one but the original author could say which is correct and which is not.