Hi, I am English learner. I have a question. "There is no one [that] I know of [who] deserves to love her."?
In this sentence, I know [that] is used as a relative pronoun because its antecedent is 'no one' and it includes 'no' before 'one' (I've learned we should only use 'that', not 'which' or other forms, when its antecedents include a negative such as 'no'), but I have no idea why [who] is being used instead of [that] in the sentence. Because, I think the antecedents of both relative pronouns are same, including the same negative 'no'.
Anyone could give me an answer?
- bluebellbkkLv 72 months ago
In your original sentence we use 'that' as the object of 'know of', and 'who' as the subject of 'deserves'.
In very advanced and formal English you could say, "There is no one I know of deserves to love her".
This omits 'that' and 'who' - children, don't try this at home.
- Anonymous2 months ago
"I have no idea why [who] is being used instead of [that] in the sentence."
Here's why. You wrote it that way. You could have written "There is no one that I know of that deserves to love her." Either one can be used.
By the way, you don't have to do anything to deserve to love someone. It's entirely up to you whether or not to love them.
- RPLv 72 months ago
These are issues that are very detailed and not matters that should affect daily usage of the language for writing or speaking, but they are certainly legitimate questions. Often, "that" is used to appear more proper and one can tell when it is not necessary by omitting it and seeing whether the sentence still makes sense. Frequently, it is used in lieu of which. In this example, who is one alternative for someone or any one and the matter of which is best is at the discretion (choice or preference) of the speaker or writer.
- busterwasmycatLv 72 months ago
the idea is that "who" is used for a person, and "that" for an idea. in this specific situation, the "that" refers to lack of knowledge (of a thing) rather than of a person, but only a person can love her, so who ought to be used.
You could also say "There is no one of whom I am aware that would deserve to love her."
This is actually a pretty sticky grammatical discussion because of the supposedly unacceptable use of "I know of", and the general idea that the use of who/whom twice in one sentence is a potential source of confusion and might sound odd.
As written, the sentence says "I have no knowledge of anyone who deserves to love her." and would be better stated that way. The use of "there is no one" is the main problem. It is an indirect statement that forces odd structures later in the sentence, so is best avoided. An editor might just say "rewrite" or "awkward sentence".
- How do you think about the answers? You can sign in to vote the answer.
- Michal SychraLv 72 months ago
I suppose that the sentece is in reduced form and [that] is omitted: There is no one that I know of that who deserves to love her.
- Anonymous2 months ago
OMG 😂😂 I thought you were an English teacher 😂