1.00 pint of milk has a volume of how many milliliters? (2 pints = 1 quart; 1 qt = 946 mL)?

3 Answers

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  • 2 months ago

    You seriously cannot divide 946 by two?

  • 2 months ago

    Just guessing, but if two pints of milk are 946ml, wouldn't one pint be half of 946ml, or 450 + 23ml or 473 ml? BTW, that's the way I solve math mentally (no pencil or paper). Handy trick, yes?

  • C
    Lv 7
    2 months ago

    Are you in the UK or US? A UK (imperial) pint is 20 fl oz whilst a US one is a mere 16 fl oz. I begin with this preamble because although your question looks like math(s) homework and the ONLY acceptable answer is contained in the question this is an international site and you will get English-speakers from all over the world giving their tuppence worth based on their location.

    For you the solution is easy. I will explain how to solve it but you must hit the numbers on the calculator yourself, okay? Otherwise what's the point of school if you leave just as stupid as you started!

    If there are two (2) pints in a quart then the volume of a pint must be half (0.5) of a quart. You will get the answer like this: 946/2 (that slash is the dived by sign if your calculator doesn't have the horizontal line with dots above and below).

    By the way, your math(s) question is using US pints.

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