Antonio asked in Arts & HumanitiesHistory · 4 months ago

Cuba and Ecuador have a high rate of people of African origin.. but how the Spaniards did it if they had no colonies in Africa?

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  • 4 months ago
    Best Answer

    Spain may not have had colonies but they had a big navy. The country took part in the slave trade, dealing with the tribal leaders who were selling slaves captured from rival tribes. England did it, the Dutch did it, the French did it, to a lesser extent the Portuguese did it. They all brought Africans to the Americas.

  • 4 months ago

    You don't need colonies to import slaves, all you need are trade goods. And Spain did have colonies in Africa, specifically Equatorial Guinea, the Canary Islands and parts of Morocco.

  • 4 months ago

    The Dutch, English, and Spaniards were the majority of the Trans Atlantic slave owners in the early colonialist days. All three bought their slaves from black slave traders in Africa and shipped them in appalling conditions to both North and South America where they were sold to the ultimate slave owners.

    To a point, the Dutch, English, and Spaniards did not colonize the African nations from which they bought their slaves. They simply sailed into Africa, bought their slaves, and sailed to the Americas to sell them to the European-American farmers who ultimately owned them.

  • 4 months ago

    A - Spain did have colonies (e.g. Morocco)

    B - But trans-Atlantic slave trade was generally open to all naval merchants regardless of nation of origin

    exception: trade ports owned by nation A would not allow ships of nation B to dock and load/unload cargo if nation B was at war with nation A

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  • 4 months ago

    Spain did have colonies in Africa, Spanish Morocco (now called Western Sahara) and Spanish Guinea (now called Equatorial Guinea). However most of the black slaves the Spanish had in their American colonies were bought through the transatlantic slave trade, captured and shipped from parts of Africa that Spain did not control.

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