Is an opportunity an opportunity if no-one is aware of it? Why or why not?

8 Answers

  • 7 months ago

    Is it karma or luck (good or bad) if no one notices it?

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  • 7 months ago

    there is no more opportunity than the one that is opportune or inopportune. It is not the word but the person and the fact.

    he follows me !

    in the same way that a person who is nervous one says calm.

    the fact is that he is nervous, the word does not follow the fact

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  • 7 months ago

    All about free-will. Everyone can reject an opportunity for a better opportunity.

    • peter m
      Lv 6
      7 months agoReport

      Well we all like to think so but I am wavering here - take that relative philosophic answer by j153e. Does anyone have a clue what is meant by..."the import or realisation of opportunity is.. FRUITAGE" ? (& Why is he recommending "a morning prayer" as an example HERE in the philosophy category...)

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  • 7 months ago

    I wouldn't say so. I think of an opportunity as the moment during which a window is open, or the moment, after the knock, during which the door may be answered, or ignored. An opportunity is an opportunity whether it is taken, grasped at and missed, or disregarded.

    My feeling is: what one might describe as, "an opportunity that no one is aware of" would be better described as, "a possibility that would be an opportunity if someone was aware of it."

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  • j153e
    Lv 7
    7 months ago

    "Opportunity" ~ = potential energy; if no-one actualizes or "moves the ball along," then the potential energy remains potential, or opportunity. The im-port or realization of opportunity is fruitage. A simple daily morning prayer to be alert to the good/opportunity, and to realize 100% of one's day's opportunities--carpe diem--may be, when constituting a sincere part of one's being and reason for being, quite efficacious.

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  • 7 months ago

    The answer is "yes" of course just like the "tree falling in forest problem"^.

    Take the philosophic problem about whether PopularISM is an-opportunity-or-not.

    I think we can agree that its being studied right now & studied academically. So it

    must have started with someone first stating its main points & possibly its method

    or spread.

    But I for one have Never ever seen it discussed here in Philosophy. Why is that?

    Perhaps it is too difficult a Question for philosophers ?

    But it sure is an important one don't you think? Spreading its western tentacles

    across the U.S. & U.K. and other parts of the world.

    It sure beats the question...If a single tree falls in the forest does anyone here it?

    No one witnessing that falling we must add.

    ^ Subjective philosophers may not answer this Question about opportunities because

    they believe incorrectly that THERE ARE NO new philosophies under-the-sun...

    meaning that they recognise a Limited amount of philosophy Questions & so a

    limited amount of real life questions (I myself have constantly argued that "real life"

    IS THE study area of Philosophy). Your standard taught subjectivist may try to argue if playing-with-words in their personal minds is different from real life.

    It only is in a limited sense hence their belief in limitism.

    Students of philosophy like students of other subject areas pose a different problem.

    Whether to answer the main Question about "opportunities", or refrain. And THEY

    should never-be-afraid to try to answer any question that THEY BELIEVE has an

    answer - and has the answer. This is so because even though you or I may not

    have the real or true answer...nevertheless we CAN get nearer SOME Truth,

    nearer & nearer edging closer to what we can agree to.

    Such agreement MAY be "wide of the mark" but at least some progress can be

    made & some (more) light shone at some one answer, "the one" required.

  • Anonymous
    7 months ago

    Did the universe exist before man existed and could be aware of it? Obviously, yes. Did the universe present an opportunity for man to exist? Yes. Question answered

    UPDATE - It's self evident.

    • Hercules7 months agoReport

      You’ve claimed your analogy is sound but you haven’t demonstrated why it’s sound

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  • 7 months ago

    This problem was solved in marxism. In capitalist society rules a judicial assumption that everybody has encyclopedic knowledge about the goods. In another words - that everybody knows all his opportunities. The class less society - communism - removes this problem because everybody will have everything according to his needs.

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