how come Indians got reservations but Jews got someone else's country?

11 Answers

  • Anonymous
    1 year ago
    Favorite Answer

    "How come Indians got reservations but Jews got someone else's country?"

    It's a long, purposefully muddied history. But here's the super quick.

    The (British) Balfour declaration promised the Zionists (Jewish people before they had a homeland) the area of Palestine which the Brithish had just conquered by this time (the middle of WW1), if they (the Zionists) would conspire with their American power-base (Wall street bankers and the financial elite) to bring the Americans into the war (WW1) which the president promised would not happen.

    The Zionists upheld their end of the deal. The rest is history.


  • Robert
    Lv 6
    1 year ago

    Hello Damir,

    There has never been any “Palestine” sovereign state upon which the “Palestinian” Arabs could base any claim to the land of Israel. Therefore the only country to which the land could rightfully belong is Israel, since the last indigenous sovereign state in the land before Israel, was the Jewish Hasmonean Kingdom of Judea which included the West Bank, Gaza, and Golan Heights, and its capital of what is now East Jerusalem.

    False-allegations of stolen land constitute Palestinian reverse-fact propaganda: The Jews were in the land long before the “Palestinian” Arab settler-colonists, a Jewish unbroken presence since Biblical times.

    The “Palestinian” Arabs attempt to justify Arab invasion, theft, and illegal-occupation, of the ancestral homeland of the Jewish People - Israel, by alleging false reverse-fact propaganda that:

    the Jews / Israel invaded the land and stole it from the “Palestinian” Arabs.

    To promote their propaganda, the “Palestinian” Arabs falsely-allege they were in the land before the Jews, by:

    denying the roots of the Jewish People in the Jews ancestral homeland of Israel.

    The “Palestinian” Arabs falsely-allege Israeli Jews all came from Europe. Some Jews are returnee-exiles, since the Jewish People have Judean heritage. Yet the Jewish People are indigenous to their ancestral homeland of Israel, with unbroken presence there from Biblical times:

    The Jewish People have had an unbroken presence in their ancestral homeland of Israel since Biblical times, and also previous sovereign states in the land for example:

    Image: Map of Jewish Hasmonean Kingdom of Judah (aka Judea) including the West Bank, Gaza, and Golan Heights, with its capital of (what is now EAST) Jerusalem / “Old City”. Between 110 BCE / 754 BH and 63 BCE / 706 BH:

    The reader can view coins from the Jewish Hasmonean Kingdom of Judea, here:

    By comparison, there is no evidence how long the “Palestinian” Arabs have been living in the land of Israel. The “Palestinian” Arabs likely come from nomadic Arabs who invaded and occupied the Jewish land of Judea / Israel. However, it is also unclear at what point they arrived in Judea / Israel, since they were opposed to being called a “People” until the 1960’s when they decided it fitted with their intention to steal the land of Israel from its indigenous Jews:

    Therefore just as Israel / the Jewish People logically cannot:


    or “illegally-settle”,

    or “be a colony on”,

    its OWN ancestral homeland,

    it also cannot logically “steal” nor “illegally-occupy”, its OWN ancestral homeland.

    Since the “Palestinian” Arabs arrived in the land of Israel well after its indigenous Jews, this makes the Arabs the “settler-colonists”.

    Therefore the reader might reasonably consider how it could be possible for there to be propaganda that the land has been stolen from the “Palestinian” Arabs, when this land was all Jewish before the Arabs ever came to the land of Israel.

    Many people are hoodwinked by such false Palestinian propaganda, due to:

    Lack of information about the historical background,


    and the pro-Palestinian influence of both the Arab-dominated United Nations, and the European Union (which funds and politically-supports the Palestinians).

    In deploying their propaganda-falsehoods against Israel, the Palestinians usually find they are “pushing at an open door”, many being Willing to believe them, while being Unwilling to verify if it is factual, due to anti-Semitism (about which they are often in denial).

    There has never been a sovereign state of “Palestine” upon which the “Palestinian” Arabs could base any claim to the land of Israel. Following the Ottoman Turkish defeat in the First World War, the League of Nations in 1921 resurrecting the name “Palestine” from Roman occupation, authorized a British Mandate, whose inhabitants were known as:

    “Palestinian Jews” / “Palestinian Arabs”. An administrative region, NOT a sovereign state, it was an area that later would be today’s:

    Jordan, Israel, and the Palestinian Territories - Please compare the second and third maps down, at:

    The prior Ottoman Turkish empire did not use any such political term as “Palestine”, but rather Ottoman-occupied Judea / Israel was within the Ottoman province of “Syria:

    From where did “Palestine” as a name imposed on the land of Israel, come?

    The Romans imposed the term “Palæstina” (“Palestine”) on Roman-occupied Judea / Israel, resurrecting the term from the defunct much smaller region of “Philistia” (Hebrew: פלשת , Pleshet), within which had previously been the Philistine five city kingdoms.

    The “Palestinian” Arabs have no connection with the ancient Philistines.

    - - - - Start of extract: - - - -

    “After crushing the [Jewish] Bar Kokhba revolt [135 CE / 779 BH–778 BH], the Roman Emperor Hadrian applied [imposed] the name Syria Palestina to the entire region, that had formerly included Judea province.”

    - - - - End of extract - - - -

    - - - - Start of extract: - - - -

    “... After Roman times the name [“Palestine”] had no official status until after ... the end of rule by the Ottoman Empire, when it was adopted for one of the regions mandated to Great Britain ...”.

    - - - - End of extract - - - -

    Israel was Re-established in 1948 following a United Nations Partition Plan which had sought to set up two states, one Jewish and one Arab.

    The then Palestinian Jewish Community had accepted the U.N. Partition Plan, while the “Palestinian” Arab response was in 1947 to start a civil war and terror to oppose the U.N. Partition Plan, instead take ALL the land of Israel, and ethnically-cleanse or murder the Jewish population from the Jews ancestral homeland of Israel:

    In 1948 the Arab countries attacked the newly Re-established State of Israel, but the Arabs lost the war. Jordan then illegally-occupied the West Bank, and also illegally-occupied East Jerusalem from which the Jordanians expelled the Jews. Egypt illegally-occupied the Gaza strip. Neither country offered these areas to the Palestinians.

    (Please see the sources which I have put into the “Sources” area of this answer.)

    Palestinian propaganda falsely-alleges the Re-establishment of Israel caused: a “great injustice” / “nakba” (“catastrophe” / “disaster”) to the Palestinians.

    In reality:

    > The Palestinians violently rejected the Arab state of the United Nations Partition Plan;

    > Jordan and Egypt occupied the land proposed for an Arab state under the U.N. Partition Plan (approximating to the West Bank and Gaza);

    > BOTH Arabs and Jews, became war-refugees;

    > The Palestinians falsely-claim with no evidence of any such policy that they were expelled from the land; Jews were indeed expelled by the Arabs as policy. Palestinians live and work in Israel.

    Therefore the reader is entitled to be sceptical about Palestinian propaganda falsely-alleging a fantasy-injustice.

    Some Arab refugees had owned land / homes there, but land / home ownership does not of itself amount to proof of entitlement to the sovereignty of the country in which a community lives.

    The Palestinians have two territories (part of the West Bank and the whole of Gaza) (or Palestinian colonies on land of the former Jewish kingdoms of Judea / Israel) which the Palestinians run themselves with their own army and police.

    The following is how the Palestinians obtained these territories:

    In 1967 Israel gained control of the West Bank and Gaza Strip (from the previous Jordanian and Egyptian illegal-occupation respectively) and as an attempt by Israel at “land for peace” under the Oslo Accords, Israel later granted the Palestinians autonomy for part of the West Bank (40%) and the whole of the Gaza Strip, as part of a peace process which anticipated further negotiations for a peace treaty.

    Being a grant of autonomy (and not sovereignty), until any peace treaty that may say otherwise, the land remains Israel’s.

    Having tricked Israel into the Oslo Accords, the “Palestinian” Arabs since:

    > Do not sincerely negotiate a peace treaty,

    > Make an unverifiable false-claim to ALL the land of Israel,

    > expelled any Jewish population from the areas under Palestinian control and then falsely-claimed “Apartheid” against Israel,

    > and attack Israeli Jewish civilians as policy including children.

    No wonder anti-Semites display such emotional-support for the Palestinians!

    Referring to the Bible where it talks about the Jewish People being given the land of Canaan by Allah / God, the noble Quran recognizes that the Land of Israel is given by Allah / God to the Jewish People, saying:

    - - - - Start of English translation extract from the noble Quran: - - - -

    Sura (chapter) “Al-Maaida” [“The Table” or “The Table Spread with Food”] 5:21:

    “O my people! Enter the holy land which Allah hath assigned unto you,

    and turn not back ignominiously, for then will ye be overthrown, to your own ruin.”

    - - - - End of English translation extract from the noble Quran - - - -

    The context from which the extract from the Quran is taken supports that recognition (for example, the previous verse 20 mentions Moses); and if someone alleges that it does not, then the reader should expect them to be able to explain that !

    I hope this helps.


    Attachment image
    Source(s): Additional Sources to which reference is made in my answer: Jordanian illegal-occupation of the West Bank and East Jerusalem: Egyptian illegal-occupation of Gaza:
  • 1 year ago

    Because back in the day you got what you fought for. The American Indians fought for territory from the start against other Indians the winner inslaved the one they didn’t kill. That’s how the world worked. Read and try to understand how things worked. Now because of civilization you buy and record what you own because of a civilization that enforces owning what you pay for.

  • 1 year ago

    Lol Jews are thieves

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  • 1 year ago

    Unlike the Indians, who are brown btw, Jews are white. And like typical white peoples, they prefer to invade and take other people's (usually brown people) country.

  • Mark
    Lv 7
    1 year ago

    Incâśė yôu have not noticed the total

    amount of land native Indians got was more

    than the land Jews not for reasons unknôwn.

  • 1 year ago

    If you are searching for fairness among various histories of conquest and genocide, you are going to be disappointed.

  • Anonymous
    1 year ago

    They didn't. They got their ancestral lands back.

  • Anonymous
    1 year ago

    How come Americans got someone else's country?

  • 1 year ago

    I’m not sure the Indians didn’t get the better deal. No one is pointing nukes at them.

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