Does De Facto Merger require that the the seller pay the buying using his own stcok or does the payment method not mater?
(1) continuity of ownership [or continuity of shareholders].....
other sources on the internet say like " continuity of ownership resulting from the seller being paid with buyer's stock"
My question is if being paid with buyer's stock is required or is this just a common occurrence in de facto cases but not always required. Is the true test common owners?