Poker cash game question. Player 1 checks. Player 2 bets $7. Player 3 goes all in for $11. Player 1 wants to go all in for $44.?

Can he do this or does he just have to call the $11? He claims since he didn’t bet he can still go all in.

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  • 5 months ago

    Play Poker games online

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  • Jeff T
    Lv 6
    6 months ago

    If it's a no limit game, Player 1 can go all in. It's called a check-raise, and is common in higher limit games.

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  • 6 months ago

    He of course can go all in. You can always go all in. The action comes to him, in a no limit game, he can bet as much as he likes above and beyond the call of the $11. The idea would be to try and push out Player 2.

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  • 7 months ago

    Yes. However, technically he is going All In for any amount UP TO $44. How much he ACTUALLY goes in for depends on whether player 2 has at least $37 still in his stack AND wants to make the call.

    If player 2 folds, no problem. Player one can go All In but it will be only for $11.

    If player 2 cannot cover the $44 bet but still wants to play, he could still go All In and player 1's All In bet amount will become whichever is greater between player 2's stack and player 3's stack (of $11). This would technically become a "side pot" and what happens then would depend on whose hand won. If player 3 wins outright, player 2 (who didn't fold in this case) pays him $11 if he has that much and player 1 pays him $11 - after which player 1 is either out of the game or has to buy in again.

    Note also that since this is a cash game and the stakes sound like "friendly" poker, the "house rules" might not allow side pots.

    If player 2 can & does cover the $44 bet, then player 1 DID go All In for $44. In that case, player 1 and player 3 have a side pot (if they are allowed).

    The rule is that saying "All In" implies but doesn't actually state an amount. If you win, you get whatever was bet. If you lose, you owe only the amount of the highest bet against you. Or stated another way, you can never lose more than the amount that somebody else bet against you.

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  • 7 months ago

    of course, in fact the strategy he just used is so common there is a name for it: the check raise.

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  • Mark
    Lv 6
    7 months ago

    Yes, he has not had any action. He if free to shove.

    Example where he can't: If he was first to act, bet $5, next player calls, the third play goes All In but has $7. The first player can't go All-in because the last bet wasn't a complete raise (<50%). He could only call the extra $2.

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  • 7 months ago

    Of course, why couldn't he? He never had a chance to react to Player 2's wager.

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  • 7 months ago

    Assuming that player 2 has the most money then yes he can because you have to take player 2 into consideration. Player 1 could try to double his money.

    If player 1 has the most money he can still go “all in” to try to eliminate both players. If player 1 has the most money, he can only bet as much as the next highest player has.

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