True or False?
Israeli-Palestinian problems were largely resolved through U.S. and Western European intervention in 1994.
- nonpartisanLv 61 year agoFavorite Answer
Absolutely false. The problems between the two countries stem from a deal made to the Arabs of Palestine in 1915 by Britain and then reneged on. There was an agreement (McMahon Agreement) whereby Britain would give the Arabs Palestine if they would open a front against Turkey in WW1 to weaken the Ottoman Empire and allow Britain to win the war.
The Arabs fulfilled their part of the deal but because it didn't have the desired effects that Britain was expecting, Britain never honored the agreement.
In 1916 Britain found itself on the losing end and was approached by the Zionists who offered to bring the United States into the war in exchange for the rights to Palestine. Britain agreed and the Zionists fulfilled their end of the deal.
After Britain had won the war the Zionists again approached Britain saying that they had fulfilled their part and now wanted something in writing that Britain would honor their part. This produced the Balfour Declaration.
But the Balfour Declaration came with a provision attached. The Zionists were prohibited from causing any problems in Palestine against the Jews and others living there.
Everyone has been led to believe that the Balfour Declaration was an innocent document of support for the Zionists to establish a home for the Jews - but nothing can be further from the truth. The "homeland for the Jews" claim was nothing more than a sales pitch that exploited the Jews' history of persecution to elicit world sympathy to support the Zionists' agenda - it sounded much better than "establishing a political base in the Middle East" (which Britain would have benefitted from).
The provision on the Balfour Declaration itself questions the motives of the Zionists. The Zionists and Britain were already aware of the McMahon Agreement and how the Arabs were stabbed in the back. And so in giving the Zionists the rights to Palestine strict caution had to be used to avoid starting a conflict.
This is extremely important to consider when WW2 broke out.
European Jews were allowed to go to Palestine, just not in large numbers. Thus, when the Zionists declared an international boycott on Germany in 1933, another deal was set up, this time between the Zionists and Hitler - the Haavara Agreement, which moved Jews from Germany to Palestine.
Because the British Mandate limited the number of Jews that could go to Palestine, only around 60,000 made it there by 1939 and the start of the war. The main reason Hitler worked with the Zionists in this deal was to get them to cancel the boycott - which they did.
Once the war started, Britain locked the doors to Palestine against ALL Jewish immigration. Had the Jews been able to immigrate there, there would never have been the death of so many. But it was more important for Britain to avoid a conflict that it would have been responsible for than to save the lives of so many Jews and others. This places the blame for the so-called "Holocaust" directly on Britain's shoulders.
In 1947 Britain ceded responsibility for governing the Middle East to the newly created UN. In doing so, the provisions of the Balfour Declaration were no longer enforced by the British Mandate, which untied the hands of the Zionists. The following year, they declared Israel an independent state and then started in on the Palestinians.
The war between Palestine and Israel has always been over this - who the rightful owners were. Because of the McMahon Agreement, the land rightfully belongs to the Arabs - the Zionists are trespassers.
- RobertLv 61 year ago
Hello Anon. / "Midnight Run",
I refer to your question / so-called "best" answer.
Contributor "Midnight Run" refers to a "McMahon agreement” 1915:
"McMahon" was a series of correspondence too vague to be any legally-binding “agreement”. The “McMahon–Hussein Correspondence” made no mention of “Palestine”, which was in 1915 controlled by the Ottomans who themselves made no use of the term “Palestine”.
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“Palestine lay to the southwest of Damascus and was not explicitly mentioned [in the “McMahon-Hussein Correspondence”].
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Contributor "Midnight Run" also alleges "Zionists ... offered to bring the United States into the war in exchange for the rights to Palestine. ... produced the Balfour Declaration".
There was no such offer / agreement, and the “Zionists” / Jews had no such influence.
Zero evidence of :
> The existence of any such agreement;
> of how it was allegedly carried out;
> of any such alleged-influence on President Wilson’s decision.
Typically the contributor provides: No details, no objective-sources; zero evidence.
America is considered to have entered the First World War for 3 main reasons:
1) In January 1917 Germany resumed unrestricted submarine warfare after President Woodrow Wilson warned this would not be tolerated, and the sinking of seven U.S. merchant ships by German submarines.
2) Germany invited Mexico to join the war, as shown in the intercepted “Zimmermann Telegram”.
3) President Wilson argued that the war was so important that the US had to have a voice in the anticipated peace conference.
Contributor "Midnight Run" also wrote:
"Because of the McMahon Agreement, the land rightfully belongs to the Arabs - the Zionists are trespassers."
The land of Israel is the ancestral homeland of the Jewish People (see link to map below), there has never been any “Palestine” sovereign state upon which the “Palestinian” Arabs could base any claim to the land of Israel,
“McMahon” was not any legally-binding agreement, and McMahon” did not even mention “Palestine” (see above).
The question-details appear to refer to the Oslo Accords signed between 1993 and 1995, to which then the answer is no: The Israeli-Palestinian problems were not largely resolved through the Oslo Accords.
This is because the Palestinians continued with their violence, their objective being to take ALL the land of Israel and expel or murder its indigenous Jews.
Brief historical background:
The “Palestinian” Arabs falsely-allege Israeli Jews all came from Europe. Some Jews are returnee-exiles, since the Jewish People have Judean heritage. Yet the Jewish People are indigenous to their ancestral homeland of Israel, with unbroken presence there from Biblical times:
The Jewish People have had an unbroken presence in their ancestral homeland of Israel since Biblical times, and also previous sovereign states in the land for example the Jewish Hasmonean Kingdom of Judea (including the West Bank, Gaza, and Golan Heights), with its capital of (what is now East) Jerusalem, and independent as at 110 BCE / 753 BH–752 BH.
Map - Please see the source which I have put into the “Sources” area of this answer.
Under the Oslo Accords Israel retains full control of Area C of the West Bank (due to Palestinian breach of the Accords in failing to stop hostile acts - see further below), and in which are the Israeli homes (“settlements”) permitted under the Accords.
The Oslo Accords do NOT forbid Israel from building homes / “settlements” in Area C of the West Bank.
The following extracted information about the governance and percentage of land areas of the West Bank, is from:
The Oslo II Accord covers both Gaza and the West Bank.
The Oslo Accords divided the West Bank into three administrative divisions:
Areas A, B and C:
Area A is exclusively administered by the Palestinian Authority, and is approximately 18% of the West Bank.
Area B (Palestinian civil control and joint Israeli-Palestinian security control), is administered by both the Palestinian Authority and Israel, and is approximately 22% of the West Bank.
Area C (full Israeli civil and security control), which contains the Israeli settlements, is administered by Israel.
Area C was intended to be: Quote: “... gradually transferred to Palestinian jurisdiction ...” (that is autonomy, not sovereignty) (Article XI). Under the Oslo Accords Area C remains under Israeli control because the Palestinians breached the terms of the Accords:
Source: Choose the “Oslo II Agreement” link on the following webpage:
How did the Palestinians breach the terms of the Accords?
By failing to: Quote: “... prevent acts of terrorism crime and hostilities ...” (Article XV).
This is quite clear because:
1) The Palestinian Authority lost control of Gaza to Hamas, which does not recognise the Oslo Accords, is dedicated to Israel’s destruction, and carries out hostile acts; for example numerous barrages of rockets fired at Israeli cities:
2) The “Palestinian Authority” (funded by the “European Union”) and the “Palestinian Liberation Organization” by Palestinian Law, pay a reward-“pension” for the murder of Israeli Jewish civilians including children (see example below).
Israel has already made all the concessions that can be reasonably expected of any nation seeking peace, under the Oslo Accords - Consider: How else did the Palestinians lay their hands on 40% of the West Bank and the whole of Gaza?
Once the Palestinians had tricked Israel into giving them autonomy of part of the West Bank and the whole of Gaza under the Oslo Accords, the Palestinians since:
> Do not sincerely negotiate any peace treaty.
> Make an unverifiable false-claim to ALL the land of Israel.
> Want to expel the Jews from the Jews ancestral-homeland of Israel.
> Have expelled any Jewish population from all areas under Palestinian control and then falsely-claimed “Apartheid” against Israel !
> Consider themselves at war with Israel.
> Attack Israeli Jewish civilians as policy including children (see below).
No wonder anti-Semites display such emotional-support for the Palestinians!
Due to anti-Semitism (about which they may also be in denial) many people, possibly hoodwinked by the successful Palestinian propaganda-lies, do not require any reasonable or proper moral standard from the Palestinians.
The Palestinians are paid a reward-“pension” to murder Israeli Jewish civilians, including children:
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“The Palestinian Authority Martyrs Fund is a fund operated by the Palestinian Authority for the purpose of paying a monthly cash stipend to the families of Palestinians killed, injured or imprisoned for involvement in attacking, assisting in attacking, or planning to attack Israel ...”
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The “Palestinian Authority” (which together with the P.L.O. pays the terrorism reward-“Pension” of their “Martyrs Fund”, and also funds “Hamas”) is itself funded by the “European Union”.
The “Palestinian Authority Martyrs Fund” and “Hamas”, both brought to you by “European Union” funding of the “Palestinian Authority”:
While there is no evidence that Israel targets civilians, the Palestinians are addicted to ethnic-hatred of Jews and target Israeli Jewish civilians as policy. The Palestinians cynically whitewash their anti-Jewish hate-war as: “uprising”, “defence”, “desperation”, “struggle”, “resistance”.
Here is an example result from the Palestinian on-going anti-Jewish hate-war:
Israeli girl, Hallel Yaffa Ariel, aged 13, fatally stabbed in her bedroom in West Bank by a Palestinian terrorist, June 30, 2016, The Guardian:
I hope this helps.
Robert.Source(s): Additional source to which reference is made in my answer: Image - Map of Jewish Hasmonean Kingdom of Judea including the West Bank, Gaza, and Golan Heights, with its capital (of what is now EAST Jerusalem aka the “Old City”) of Jerusalem, and independent as at 110 BCE / 753 BH–752 BH: https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/4/4...
- ChrisLv 61 year ago
- JeffLv 61 year ago
Completely and absolutely false, they have had problems for much longer than 25 years.
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- CousinLv 61 year ago
- FascinatedLv 61 year ago
False. But wouldn't it be lovely to find a way to resolve the problems between "the children of Israel" and others living in the Palestine region that have been such intense issues for more than 3,000 years already.
- QueenLv 61 year ago
Yes , till now too