Why is France a Permanent Member of the UN Security Council?
After all, France was just another overrun country of Europe, that offered no significant resistance to Nazi Germany when the attack came, and collaborated with the Germans during the war. Why should France have the ability to gum up the works in the United Nations with a veto on the Security Council?
- JulienLv 72 years agoFavorite Answer
In 1945/46 France was still a non-negligible power. It was weakened, but it still had a large colonial empire (while decolonisation didn't seem obvious yet) and it was about to finish its nuclear weapon program (despite all the Anglo-American efforts to slow it down).
China as well was rather weak, but they've been included as well. And as a result the permanent members represented more than half of the World population, at that time. This was supposed to result in a strong security council, with some solid legitimacy to take decisions that the SDN was not able to enforce.
Despite USA's huge gains from WW2, the World was not yet as unipolar as it is now, this had to be taken into account.
- WhoLv 72 years ago
since the UN was founded france has never vetoed any resulution
Since then the US has vetoed every resolution that involved israel (the latest being trump the chump's decision to move the US embassy to jerusalem
The USSR has also vetoed loads but they were just to p///ss off the US
- Chances68Lv 72 years ago
Because France was one of the great democracies of Europe, and in fact, French troops fought well and bravely alongside British and American forces in Italy and North Africa, as well as France and eventually, Germany.
- TinaLv 72 years ago
Why do Americans (and I assume this questioner is American) have such peculiar ideas about France? If you don't understand why she is world power - then read some history and contemporary politics.
- How do you think about the answers? You can sign in to vote the answer.
- Anonymous2 years ago
The French Resistance was a vital part of the Allied war effort with MI 19 and essential to the success of Operation Overlord (although this was offset to some extent by the Vichy collaboration); most of the navy fought on, or at least, was denied to the Nazis. Having two permanent members in Europe was seen as important for the post war future and France was eventually to supply an army of occupation to Germany and France controlled a significant empire at the time.
You might ask the same about China.
- Alderman KenoLv 72 years ago
Because it has nuclear missiles, and retains defence ties with a number of countries that used to be part of the French empire. In fact, it retains stronger military ties with its old imperial possessions than other countries do, and has a record of direct involvement in their politics.
- Anonymous2 years ago
Why is Russia? It is substantively not the same state as the USSR.