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Lauren asked in SportsOlympics · 3 years ago

Why was Nazi Germany allowed to host the 1936 Olympics?

That would be like letting North Korea or Syria host the 2020 Olympics. Major human rights violations.

4 Answers

  • 3 years ago
    Favorite Answer

    Germany was awarded the games long before Hitler took control of the country, when other countries complained the IOC sent representatives to inspect the facilities and whether or not the stories of Nazi oppression were true, these "inspectors" claimed it would be okay and politics would not be a part of the Olympics. They were wrong either because they were blind, ignorant, or just ignored the truth.

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  • 3 years ago

    The comments thus far are all correct. Hitler became Chancellor in January 1933 and the Nazi party came to power shortly thereafter. The International Olympic Committee awarded the Games (both Winter and Summer) in 1931. I don't blame the IOC for that. They could not have foreseen the rise of totalitarianism and fascism 5 years in advance.

    However, I do blame the IOC in general and its President, Henri de Baillet-Latour for not moving the Olympics after the Nazis came to power. The was ample opportunity to move the Olympics. The German Olympic Committee members successfully massaged an agreement demanding German Jews have an equal chance to make the team to one that merely suggested it. Lastly, there was lots of anti-Semitic propaganda during the Winter Olympics in Garmisch-Partenkirchen, also in Germany. De Baillet-Latour demanded that such propaganda not be present for the Berlin Summer Olympics, and they weren't. That, and other promises, were good enough for him.

    Avery Brundage, President of the American Olympic Committee and Amateur Athletic Union, did his best to tamp down word of Jews and others being repressed in Germany. Finally he visited Germany and happily lapped up the whitewashed scenery, which he dutifully reported. This paved the way for AOC and AAU to narrowly decide not to boycott the Berlin Summer Olympics. Had the US boycotted, other nations signaled they too would boycott. Brundage would be rewarded with his fealty to the IOC with its Presidency in 1952.

    So the real question is not "why did Germany get the 1936 Olympics?" It's "why didn't Germany lose the 1936 Olympics?"

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  • Bob
    Lv 7
    3 years ago

    They decided to award the 1936 Summer Olympics to Berlin in 1931, at that time Hitler was not in power at that time. You act like they knew what was going to happen and they did not know.

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  • 3 years ago

    The decision to put the 1936 summer games in Berlin was made by the Olympic Committee on 26 April 1931, when Germany was a republic. The other city that received votes for the honor was Barcelona. The Nazis did not take over until 23 March 1933.

    When the anti-Jewish policy of the Nazis became evident, Committee members did discuss privately the possibility of canceling or moving the games. However, the United States' Olympic Committee pre-empted those discussions by being the first to accept the German invitation in September 1934.

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