State power to tax?

I was just wondering how come a State has the power to impose taxes such as property tax, sales tax etc.. if the power to tax is given only to the Congress and federal government?

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  • 3 years ago

    It is NOT given only to the Congress and federal government.

    Originally, it was given only to the states. Actually, originally, it was given only to the King. In 1776, the U.S. declared independence, and it was given to states.

    It was given only to the states when the U.S. become independent. After the U.S. became independent, only the states had it until the Constitution was ratified. At that time, Congress was given the power to impose tariffs (import taxes) and excise taxes, as well as the power to tax the state governments based on their population. The states kept sole power to impose all other types of taxes, including property tax (income tax didn't exist yet).

    The power to impose an income tax wasn't given to Congress or the federal government until about 100 years ago, and it wasn't given as an exclusive power; states kept the powers that they already had.

  • 3 years ago

    Because each state also has a Constitution.

  • Judy
    Lv 7
    3 years ago

    Read it again. Do you see the work ONLY for power to tax?

  • tro
    Lv 7
    3 years ago

    a state is a sovereign state and has the empowerment to assess taxes on its citizens just like the federal gov't is able to assess taxes on citizens and states because they comprise a united group

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  • 3 years ago

    Read the Constitution again. Where it says that Congress shall have 'Power to lay and collect taxes etc etc', do you see the word EXCLUSIVE before the word 'Power'? No, you don't.

    The federal government has only the powers granted to it by the Constitution. Anything else is reserved by the individual states. Each of the thirteen original states already had their power to tax, and none of them would have agreed to join a union if they had to give the EXCLUSIVE right to tax to a federal system of government.

  • 3 years ago

    The power to tax at the federal level is given to Congress. This has nothing to do with the power to tax at the state level.

  • 3 years ago

    Well since the power to tax comes from the Constitution and is granted to the Federal government, then under the supremacy clause the constitution is the supreme law of the land taking precedent over any state laws, does that mean that states have no right to tax?

  • Anonymous
    3 years ago

    "if the power to tax is given only to the Congress and federal government" Wrong. Obviously.

  • 3 years ago

    The power to tax is governed by the individual state's constitution and laws enacted by the individual state's

    legislature.. The right to impose taxes is not something that is restricted to the Federal Government. Just out of curiosity, where did you get the idea that only the Federal Government has the right to impose taxes upon their

    citizens?

    • RUSerious
      Lv 7
      3 years agoReport

      What does that have to do with the right of the states to impose taxes on people living in their state?

  • 3 years ago

    The federal government has the power to tax not the exclusive power to tax.

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