Evolutionists-If the first man spoke one language, how comes we have 1000s of different languages today?

Update:

Evolutionists/atheists- A language changes in the following ways:

1. Intermarriage- where a language meets another language, hybridize and give rise to a new language

2. Transformation of a particular language by adding new terms, changing pronunciations, new words describing newly invented items that did not exist.

No language has ever changed because of environmental factors, external pressures, genetic make up.

Example; Old English is extinct, it only gave rise to new English and no other

Update 2:

Why would apes turn into English speaking humans in one region while in another region turn into German speaking humans?

If the first humans spoke one language, what prompted the change in language when their was no intermarriage? I mean if that language was English, it would have only transformed over time but still remain English, why do we have 1000s toady?

26 Answers

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  • 5 years ago
    Favorite Answer

    Evolutionists can't give a good answer to this question. The best answer they can come up with is that the early pre-human species evolved in different locations, thus giving rise to different languages. If they evolved in the same location, they would've learned the same language and there would be no need to develop a bunch of new ones. The reason their best answer doesn't work is because evolution wouldn't occur at the same pace in different locations. There would be large time gaps, allowing for the spread of the first language which would dominate before the next one could even arrive. And the fact that we have so many different languages makes their answer even more problematic. We also find close similarities between different languages. Why the close similarities if the development of these languages were so far apart from each other? People don't decide to just invent new oral languages if they already have one in place. It doesn't make any sense just like no one on Earth does that today.

  • MARK
    Lv 7
    5 years ago

    If you were not so blind and bigotted and closed to learning anything new you would realise that the answer to your question is in your question. Why did English change? Why did Old English become Middle English? Why did Middle English become Modern English? English did not used to exist. It derived from a Germanic language on the mainland of the European continent. If a language can change so drastically in a small country like England just over time then it takes no great leap of the imagination to realise how a population 1000s of miles away would develop different languages. And, English has changed that much. Unless it is a field you study (I hope not based on your question) you cannot read Old English nor would you be able to understand it if it were spoken to you.

    Evolutionists do not need to explain language to you anyway. It is not genetic. You do not have a gene that makes you speak English. You speak English because it was the language you probably learnt as a child. If at birth you had been handed over to a Chinese couple, taken to Beijing in China and been raised in a household where the only language spoken was Mandarin you would be a fluent Mandarin speaker.

  • Anonymous
    4 years ago

    evolutionists for the life of me cannot give a good answer to this question... the proper answer they can come up with is that the early pre-human species evolved in different locations, thus giving rise to different languages... if they evolved in the same location, they would've learned the same language and there would be no need to develop a bunch of new ones... the reason their proper answer doesn't work is 'cause evolution wouldn't occur at the same pace in different locations... there would be large time gaps, allowing for the spread of the first language which would dominate before the next one could even arrive... and the fact that we have so numerous different languages makes their answer even more problematic... we also find close similarities between different languages... well, why the close similarities if the development of these languages were so far apart from each other? people don't decide to just invent new oral languages if they already have one in place... it doesn't make any sense just like no one on earth does that today...

  • 5 years ago

    Languages evolve. Linguists group languages into different families based on their similarities. In the USA for example, we have different accents, even though as a country we are only 200 years old. We have New York , Boston, southern and midewestern accents for example. In England, the regional accents are even more pronounced. Even though the people are still speaking English, they are sometimes barely understandable to Americans. People from India speak English with a distinct accent.

    In China, the different accents of Chinese are even less similar. Two people from different regions may not understand each other at all even though they are speaking the same language. The pronunciations of the same words are often drastically different. Because of geographic isolation, languages gradually evolve to be more and more different until they are not even recognizable. In Europe, linguists have known that languages such as Spanish, Portuguese, Romanian, French, and Italian are languages derived from Latin, and yet they are quite different from one another, and also from Latin itself. It has only been a bit over 2000 years since the Romans conquered Europe and the languages have changed so much already. Considering the fact that humans evolved in Africa 150,000 to 200,000 years ago, the different regions of Africa have ample time to evolve their own languages. Because humans migrated out of Africa starting 60,000 to 70,000 years ago, there is also ample time for languages to evolve locally as humans spread around the world and the human population grew and became isolated from one another. The more people living in different local groups, the more different languages will evolve through time..

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  • Tony R
    Lv 7
    5 years ago

    You need to study how languages change over time. This is already a well known subject that has been proven long ago. In a thousand years a language changes into something completely unrecognizable, such as old English or old french, which evolved from other languages before them not spoken today.

  • 5 years ago

    Evolutionists-If the first man spoke one language, how comes we have 1000s of different languages today?

    ~~~ If there was a 'first man', with whom, exactly, did he speak?

  • Anonymous
    5 years ago

    That's easy to explain, it's all due to isolation of groups. I live in the UK in Shropshire, I speak English. Hamish lives in Glasgow and he also speaks English, but I find it difficult to understand all that he says, he finds it just as difficult to understand me. We have developed local accents and ways of speaking, also local terms for objects and places etc have evolved separately from each other. The written word has lessened this in recent years as most of us now read and write in the "Queen's English" which is acessible to all.

  • 5 years ago

    Time. English and German and basically the same language separated by a thousand years,

  • Candy
    Lv 7
    5 years ago

    In the book of Genesis,everyone spoke one language,& worked together to build a tower that reached Heaven.They called it the Tower of Babel..

    God was displeased with the notion that man thought they could build a tower to Heaven,so God made them to start speaking different languages.This caused utter chaos,& the tower construction came to a screeching halt.

    Then the families that understood one another's language moved away from the families they could not understand,& formed their own tribes,& nations.This is why different nations speak different languages to this very day.

    This is where we get the word babbling.As in,Quit your babbling.Babbling is incoherent speech.People don't understand it.

    King Nimrod ordered the construction of the Tower of Babel.Nimrods' Great Grandfather was Noah.

  • Archer
    Lv 7
    5 years ago

    Apparently you can not understand the separation of humanity which evolves into dialects and after prolonged separation entirely different languages or do you really believe your god feared the collective ability of mankind as demonstrated in the tower of Babble story!

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