Michael asked in Arts & HumanitiesPhilosophy · 5 years ago

If morality is subjective, doesn't that make justice subjective too?

After all, our idea of "fairness" is also culturally determined. Indeed, the belief that fairness itself as a virtue to strive for must also be culturally determined as well.

Update:

oops! "fairness itself as a virtue"??? substitute fairness itself is a virtue. thanks.

Update 2:

If that's the case, why the moral outrage over injustice? I can understand resentment, even anger if folks are directly affected, but outrage? Throbbing veined, strident, even violent outrage just makes no sense. After all it's just someone else's personal or cultural perspective. How can that be wrong?

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  • Marc
    Lv 7
    5 years ago
    Favorite Answer

    Humans are subjective in all our endeavours , we can increase objective morality thats all , this is what Buddha and Jesus teaching were about , laws are becoming harder this is sign of lack of goodness we are at turning point in our evolution , as an Evolutional Goodhist I increase goodness reduce fear increasing objective morality we can all do it, reverse the process .

    seek my answers

  • 5 years ago

    In the 1930s, Austrian mathematician Godel proved a

    theorem which became the "Godel theorem" in cognition

    theory. It states that any formalized 'logical' system

    in principle cannot be complete in itself. It means

    that a statement can always be found that can be

    neither disproved nor proved using the means of that

    particular system. To discuss about such a statement,

    one must go beyond that very logic system; otherwise

    nothing but a vicious circle will result. Psychologist

    say that any experience is contingent - it's opposite

    is logically possible and hence should not be treated

    as contradictory.

    Flaws in Reasoning and Arguments: Black and White Thinking

    http://atheism.about.com/od/logicalflawsinreasonin...

    Millions of lawyers are thriving due to that flaw.

  • 5 years ago

    Yes both are subjective. I find that most people's idea of justice is way over the top and usually has no merit anyway.

  • Anonymous
    5 years ago

    What everyone else calls justice, I call state-sanctioned revenge. To punish people for their actions when they're ultimately out of our control is wrong. Maybe FIX people instead of locking them all in a box or killing them.

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  • ?
    Lv 5
    5 years ago

    Morality, justice, fairness, virtue - it's all subjective. "Outrage" comes from beliefs that they are NOT subjective.

  • Peter
    Lv 6
    5 years ago

    morality is somwhat subjective in nature, i personally believe that objective morality does exsist.

    however

    justice does NOT exist, it is a totally imagined concept that we would be better off without. ill explain if anyone cares to ask.

  • Anonymous
    5 years ago

    The answer to your question is "Yes, both are subjective".

    That is why a rich kid who drinks, underage, and drives a car into a crowd, killing people, gets probation, while a poor person who steals a loaf of bread gets prison.

    It is also why your fairy tale judge sentences a person who forgot to apologize for saying "Oh, sh|t" to the exact same punishment as Hitler.

  • 5 years ago

    Yes, they are. At one time in the US, it was legal (although perhaps not ETHICAL) to own another human being, and force them to work slave labor their entire lifetime. The bible itself also supports slavery, and there is no way to deny it. However, in modern times slavery is illegal. We are so fortunate to live in a time when the bible does not dictate human laws.

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