A 64-year-old white male appears to be depressed 2 weeks after hospital discharge for a myocardial infarction?

A 64-year-old white male appears to be depressed 2 weeks after hospital discharge for a myocardial infarction. He experienced short runs of ventricular tachycardia during his hospitalization, and echocardiography revealed an ejection fraction of 40% at the time of discharge, with no symptoms of heart failure.... show more A 64-year-old white male appears to be depressed 2 weeks after hospital discharge for a
myocardial infarction. He experienced short runs of ventricular tachycardia during his
hospitalization, and echocardiography revealed an ejection fraction of 40% at the time of
discharge, with no symptoms of heart failure. He has a history of depression in the past. His
current symptoms include depressed mood, sleep disturbance, feelings of hopelessness, and
anhedonia. He denies suicidal ideation.
Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point?
A) Low-dose amitriptyline at bedtime
B) Sertraline (Zoloft)
C) Referral for electroconvulsive therapy
D) Referral for intense interpersonal psychotherapy
2 answers 2