Anonymous
Anonymous asked in Politics & GovernmentPolitics · 8 years ago

Is there a legitimate reason why owning bombs infringes on my second amendment rights?

If I want to use grenades and land mines for hunting and self defense, then why can't I? I already own a gun, so I think I ought to be able to own explosives if I wish.

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  • Anonymous
    8 years ago
    Favorite Answer

    Stupidity: The Second Amendment doesn't specify "firearms." It simply says "arms." Bombs would fall under that category.

  • Not if you take the second amendment at face value and don't use common sense judgment while implementing it.

    EDIT: The actual definition of firearm according to the Oxford English Dictionary is "A weapon from which missiles are propelled by the combustion of gunpowder or other explosive." Therefore, you can use bombs as long as they are propelled by explosives.

  • Bombs, land mines, and grenades all employ the use of high explosives. You must have the proper permits and training to possess high explosive material.

  • Anonymous
    8 years ago

    Yeah, the Zionism overlords imposed a harsh ban on Germany's military after world war 1, which eventually led to the triumphant leadership of Adolf Hitler.

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  • 8 years ago

    I knew it wouldn't take long for someone to quickly turn the bombing into an attack on our 2nd Amendment rights.

  • Slater
    Lv 5
    8 years ago

    You are talking ridiculous to further your agenda.

    Being on your knees for Obama, which appears to be your sole defining characteristic, saddens me because it it so pathetic.

    Wake up brother, and think for yourself.

  • 8 years ago

    Boston marathon, today!

  • 8 years ago

    This is a foolish argument.

    No one has argued we own bombs.

  • Elliot
    Lv 7
    8 years ago

    I seriously doubt it.

  • 8 years ago

    Bombs, nuclear missiles or whatever other silly stuff you libs come up with are not considered "arms". Try a dictionary next time.

    Source(s): Texas!
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