First, it should be pointed out that all Trinitarian "proof texts" and arguments require a ignorance of Scriptural terms, context and grammar.
For example, any claim that Jesus is Jehovah because he said "I Am" is a result of faulty research.
First, the rendering of Ex. 3:14 as "I Am that I Am" is a mistranslation of the Greek "EGO EIMI hO ON" which is in turn a mistranslation of the Hebrew "EHYEH ASHER EHYEH." A more accurate translation would be "I will be what I will be" (Rotherham's, NRSV & NIV-1984 ftnts).
This is why the Trinitarian's linking Jn 8:58 with Ex.3 is invalid. It is based on a falsehood and an incorrect translation of the Septuagint, not the inspired Hebrew words.
Further, the noun identifying God in the Septuagint was "hO ON" and NOT the verb "EGO EIMI/I am"! Jesus only used a common verb, not some "name of God." Neither "ego eimi" nor the corresponding Hebrew "ani hu" are ever used as titles for Jehovah.
To illustrate: If I said "I am Fred" which word identifies me? The noun "Fred" of course. Now if someone else uses the words "I am," does this mean they are identifying themselves as me? Of course not, totally illogical! What Jesus used was simply a very common verb, one that everyone used.
If "I Am" was an exclusive title for Almighty God then what did it mean when the once-blind man used the very same words in the very next chapter (Jn.9:9)? Was he saying that he was God? Was David?! (1Chr 21:17 LXX)
Scholar A.B. Davidson said: "The translation ‘I am' is doubly false: the tense is wrong, being present; and the idea is wrong... All those interpretations which proceed upon the supposition that the name is a name of God...must be set aside...the nature of the verb and the tense pre-emptorily forbid them."– The Theology of the OT, in The International Theological Library
At Jn. 8:58 the Jews were asking him how long he had been around, not who he was. Grammatically it is more correctly translated as "I have been" like at Jn. 14:9 where most translators render eimi as "I have been" or "have I been?" This is not done at 8:58 because Trinitarian translators are desperately trying to find support for their belief and disregarding Greek (and English) grammar.
Many translations give the correct English understanding and so read "I tell you I existed before Abraham was born." (Goodspeed's, The Living Bible, NASB's marginal note, Beck's, Williams, and Moffatt's)
You will notice when the Greek construction is correctly rendered there is no indication of an identification of Jesus with God or Jehovah. Jesus simply said he existed from "before Abraham," referring to his pre-human existence.
Trinitarians claim that the only reason the Jews tried to kill Jesus was if he was claiming to be God. This is a theological presupposition and is not found in the context. The explicitly stated reason they wanted to kill Jesus was because he claimed to be the Son of God and the Messiah, NOT because he claimed to be God (Jn.19:7; Mt 26:63-65)!
In Jn 8:58 Jesus claimed to have existed before the Jews' "father" Abraham, which they took as an insult to Abraham. Not only did he claim to be greater than Abraham but he also told them they were not from God & their Father was the devil. So it is easy to see why the Jews tried to kill him!
In context Jesus used the verb "I am" FIVE times before they tried to stone him (vss. 12, 18, 24, 28, 58). It is easy to see that the Jews did not understand his using "I am" meant that he was saying he was Jehovah because no one made the connection the other times. They tried to stone him because Jesus made a clear claim to his being the Messiah. Which was what the whole discussion was about in the first place.
At Christ's trial the judges never accused him of saying he was God, rather reason they sentenced him to death was because he admitted he was the Messiah!
When we listen to what the Scriptures are saying they are very clear in telling us that Jesus cannot be equal to Almighty God. The Bible never contradicts nor confuses with incomprehensible doctrines like the trinity.
Everywhere in the Bible God is separate and distinct from Christ. Christ is always presented as less than Almighty God (Jn. 14:28; 20:17; Mk.13:32; 1Cor.15:27,28; Rev.3:2,12). At the highest position he will ever attain, Jesus still has a God over him and is "subject" to *GOD* the same way we are "subject" to him.
Therefore, to construe Jesus' use of EGO EIMI as a claim of equality with God would require us to ignore the context, including the explicit testimony of Jesus himself to the contrary!