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Anonymous
Anonymous asked in Politics & GovernmentLaw & Ethics · 8 years ago

If you give a drug for free, is it the same penalty as selling?

Ex cops sees it all. Searches both you finds no money. Just wondering, because on cops they have to agree to the undercover sale before the arrest. If no sale, less of a crime?

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  • 8 years ago
    Favorite Answer

    Yes. They have changed the language to "distribution", so that means selling and giving in all 50 states.

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  • Kyle
    Lv 4
    8 years ago

    I'm not to sure. I would assume giving it away for free would be considered the same as selling seeing as it's not really a "Selling" charge it's "Intent to Distribute"... and prescription bottles or the paper that comes with them all say it's unlawful to give this drug to anyone other than the person it's prescribed to

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  • 8 years ago

    Yes.

    "Selling" drugs isn't a crime. "Distributing" is the crime. Whether you distribute for free or in exchange for cash, other drugs, sex, etc. you will be charged with the same crime.

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  • Anonymous
    8 years ago

    Any illegal transaction of a spurious drug is liable to be punished equally since procurement of the same amounts to transportation etc. all countries have more or less equal justice system.

    Source(s): Refer NDPS Act,
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  • Anonymous
    8 years ago

    Depending on your state and local laws, some circumstances need to exist for intent to sell. For instance, if you have a certain (large) amount of a drug, it will automatically be considered intent to sell. If you have drugs in individual "baggies", this would also be intent to sell.

    It's also not one crime which you are making "less of a crime", it's various crimes that are not applicable.

    -Intent to sell

    -Drug trafficking

    -Endangering the welfare of a child

    -Possession of (drug) over (x) amount

    etc. etc.

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  • 8 years ago

    its distributing a drug and possesion so most likely yes

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  • Anonymous
    8 years ago

    Yes it is

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  • HD
    Lv 7
    8 years ago

    yes.

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