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Has Spanish developed from Vulgar Latin?and what do you mean by vulgar Latin?
- Tom LLv 79 years agoFavorite Answer
Yes, all the Romance languages developed from Vulgar Latin. English took the word 'vulgar' from Lain. Originally, it was used to mean 'of the common people, of the general public.' Only much later did the meanings of obscene and lewd become associated with the word. At any rate, there is an established technical meaning for the word when it is used with languages:
"A form of a language, esp of Latin, current among common people, esp at a period when the formal language is archaic and not in general spoken use."
That's what happened when Spanish, French, Catalan, etc. developed. Classic Latin, the Latin of Rome, was not in general use. It was reserved for literature, formal documents, etc. What the people spoke was based on that, but word meanings had changed (just like the meaning of vulgar changed in English), many slang expressions and words were used, endings of words were dropped or words slurred (How often do you hear some one say 'I'm gonna...' instead of 'I am going to...' and definitely pronouncing the final 'g'?)
Add to that the influences of the languages spoken in the area before the Romans arrived - some of those words were adopted by the Roman officials. Also, many of the 'Romans' assigned to the provinces or in the Roman Legions occupying the areas had never been near Rome. They had no knowledge of Classic Latin, and they brought with them words and expressions from their home area.
Put that all in in pot and stir for six or eight hundred years and you have Spanish.
- robinLv 79 years ago
Vulgar Latin is not pure Latin,another example. English spoken by the British is correct in it's pronunciation and spelling whereas the American English is decreed by Websters Dictionary.
- Anonymous9 years ago
..what do you mean by, "what do I mean, YOU PEOPLE?"?