Questions For Jehovah Witnesses?

1. Jehovah said in Deuteronomy 32:39 there are no gods with me.

John 1:1 is implying Jesus is a god and is with God.

There is clearly something wrong here, there are no gods with Jehovah,

but your bible is saying Jesus is a god and is with God.

Why is your bible NWT contradicting itself ?

Deuteronomy 32:39 NWT Jehovah Witness Bible

SEE now that I—I am he

And there are no gods together with me.

I put to death, and I make alive.

I have severely wounded, and I—I will heal,

And there is no one snatching out of my hand.

John 1:1 NWT Jehovah Witness Bible

In [the] beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god.

Jehovah said in Isaiah 43:10 Before me there was no God formed,

and after me there continued to be none

Isaiah 43:10-11 NWT Jehovah Witness Bible

“YOU are my witnesses,” is the utterance of Jehovah, “even my servant whom I have chosen, in order that YOU may know and have faith in me, and that YOU may understand that I am the same One. Before me there was no God formed, and after me there continued to be none. 11 I—I am Jehovah, and besides me there is no savior.”

Jesus CANT be a god or a lesser God because

Jehovah said there are no gods together with me and he also said

before me there was no God formed and after me there continued to be none.

2. Isn't it true that there is only ONE True God ?

3. There are two 1+1=2 which one is false ? the small god or the big God ?

4. If Jesus is Michael the Archangel where in scripture does Jehovah ever say Michael the Archangel is the Only Begotten Son ?

John 3:16 says Jesus is the Only Begotten Son

5. If all angels are sons of God which one is the Only Begotten son from the father ? where in scripture does Jehovah ever say to any angel is the Only Begotten son ?

6. If Michael the Archangel is Jehovah's first creation. Where in Scripture does Jehovah ever say Michael is the first creation ? Where is the word first creation and Michael used together in scripture ?

firstborn can mean firstborn into a family and it can also mean a title of high rank.

The word first creation is NOT in Colossians 1:15. It does NOT even say michael in that verse.

David who was the last one born in his family in ( 1 Chronicles 2:13-15 ) was called firstborn by Jehovah in ( Psalm 89:20,27)

1 Chronicles 2:13-15 NWT David is the last one born

Jes´se, in turn, became father to his firstborn E·li´ab, and A·bin´a·dab the second, and Shim´e·a the third, 14 Ne·than´el the fourth, Rad´dai the fifth, 15 O´zem the sixth, David the seventh.

Psalm 89:20,27 NWT David is called firstborn by Jehovah

20 I have found David my servant;

With my holy oil I have anointed him,

27 Also, I myself shall place him as firstborn,

The most high of the kings of the earth.

7. in Acts 2:32 God resurrected Jesus and in John 2:19-21 Jesus said he would rise up his own body in three days and in 1 Corinthians 15:3-4 says Jesus was raised up on the third day.

something doesn't add up here, who resurrected who ? Is Jesus lying ?

Acts 2:32 NWT

This Jesus God resurrected, of which fact we are all witnesses

John 2:19-21 NWT

In answer Jesus said to them: “Break down this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.” 20 Therefore the Jews said: “This temple was built in forty-six years, and will you raise it up in three days?” 21 But he was talking about the temple of his body.

1 Corinthians 15:3-4 NWT

For I handed on to YOU, among the first things, that which I also received, that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures; 4 and that he was buried, yes, that he has been raised up the third day according to the Scriptures;

8. Jesus resurrected physically.

Jesus said in Luke 24:39 NWT See my hands and my feet, that it is I myself; feel me and see, because a spirit does not have flesh and bones just as YOU behold that I have.”

Jesus also showed them his hands and his feet

Luke 24:40 NWT

[[And as he said this he showed them his hands and his feet.]]

Jesus also appeared to Simon in Luke 24:34

Luke 24:34 NWT

saying: “For a fact the Lord was raised up and he appeared to Simon!”

Why does the watchtower teach Jesus was resurrected spiritually and not of the flesh ?

2 John 1:7 NWT

For many deceivers have gone forth into the world, persons not confessing Jesus Christ as coming in the flesh. This is the deceiver and the antichrist.

John 1:1 KJV and all other bible translations read

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

John 1:1 in the Jehovah Witness Bible says the Word was With God and was a god.

Deuteronomy 32:39. Jehovah says there are no gods with me.

Why is John 1:1 in the Jehovah Witness Bible contradicting with Deuteronomy 32:39 ?

Isn't it true that there is only ONE True God ?

There are two 1+1=2 which one is false ? the small god or the big God ?

Update:

Deuteronomy 32:39 NWT (Jehovah says I am he)

SEE now that I—I am he

And there are no gods together with me.

I put to death, and I make alive.

I have severely wounded, and I—I will heal,

And there is no one snatching out of my hand.

In John 8:24 NWT ( Jesus says I am he )

Therefore I said to YOU, YOU will die in YOUR sins. For if YOU do not believe that I am [he], YOU will die in YOUR sins.”

Jesus claimed to be Jehovah God

Revelation 1:8 NWT

“I am the Al´pha and the O·me´ga,” says Jehovah God, “the One who is and who was and who is coming, the Almighty.”

If Jehovah did not come to us Is Jehovah God Lying ?

Jehovah said He was in Revelation 1:8

John 1:1 KJV

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

Update 2:

Thank you Sherry for pointing out that the small god is a false god.

John 1:1 in the NWT is clearly saying Jesus is a god.

There is only One True God correct ?

John 1:1 must be saying Jesus is a false god

If Jesus is not a false god then you believe in two. 1+1=2

Update 3:

one small god and one big God. 1+1=2

you are serving two, one small god and one big God

Update 4:

Only Jehovah Can Be The Savior, An Angel Cannot. Jehovah Said "BESIDES ME THERE IS NO SAVIOR" ( Isaiah 43:11 )

Isaiah 43:11 NWT

I—I am Jehovah, and besides me there is no savior.”

Update 5:

Mindy

you did NOT answer my questions, you are twisting scripture to the form or your own answers.

If Jesus is Michael the Archangel where in scripture does Jehovah ever say Michael the Archangel is the Only Begotten Son ?

Update 6:

Why are you distorting the word of God to the form of your own answers. I am looking for specific scriptures.

Update 7:

2 Corinthians 5:19 KJV (God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself )

wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation.

7 Answers

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  • Anonymous
    9 years ago
    Favorite Answer

    If someone on here can clearly point out to me ONE PASSAGE in the scriptures that CLEARLY states that Jesus is Michael the Archangel, I will give that person a cyberspace handshake and sincere greetings!

    If someone on here can clearly point out to me ONE PASSAGE in the scriptures that CLEARLY states that Jesus is Michael the Archangel, I will give that person a cyberspace handshake and sincere greetings!

    The immediate problem with the NWT is that YHWH is also called the Mighty God in Jeremiah 32:18 and Isaiah 10:21. In all three verses, including Isaiah 9:6, the Hebrew word for "mighty" (gibbor) is used.

    •Isaiah 10:20-21, "Now it will come about in that day that the remnant of Israel, and those of the house of Jacob who have escaped, will never again rely on the one who struck them, but will truly rely on the LORD, the Holy One of Israel. 21A remnant will return, the remnant of Jacob, to the mighty God."

    •Jer. 32:18, "who showest lovingkindness to thousands, but repayest the iniquity of fathers into the bosom of their children after them, O great and mighty God, the LORD of hosts is His name."

    We can see that the Jehovah's Witness explanation is not valid. Both the Son and God are called the Mighty God.

    Furthermore, how many actual gods are there in scripture? The obvious answer is that there is only one God in existence. Though there are others who have been falsely called gods (1 Cor. 8:5-6) or even said to be "as God" like Moses (Ex. 4:16; 7:1), there is only one real God (Gal. 4:8-9; Isaiah 44:6,8). If Jesus is "a god" that was "with God" in the beginning, then is Jesus a true god or a false god?

    But, the Jehovah's Witnesses often claim that Jesus is a god in the sense that Moses was called a god. But, Moses was not called a god. Rather, he would be "as God."

    •"Moreover, he shall speak for you to the people; and it shall come about that he shall be as a mouth for you, and you shall be as God to him, (Exodus 4:16).

    •"Then the Lord said to Moses, 'See, I make you as God to Pharaoh, and your brother Aaron shall be your prophet,'" (Exodus 7:1).

    Why was Moses going "as God" to Pharaoh? Because Moses was given the authority and power to display powerful miracles that decimated much of Egypt. Was Moses really a god? Being "as God" in regards to power given to perform miracles over Egypt is not the same thing as being called "a god" that was in the beginning with God, (John 1:1).

    John was a strict Jew, a monotheist. Does the Jehovah's Witness really think that John would be saying that there was another God besides Jehovah, even if it were Jesus? Being raised a good Jew, the apostle John would never believe that there was more than one God in existence. Yet, he compared the word with God, said the word was God, and that the word became flesh (John 1:1,14).

    John 1:1 in a literal translation reads thus: "In beginning was the word, and the word was with the God, and God was the word." Notice that it says "God was the word." This is the actual word-for-word translation. It is not saying that "a god was the word." That wouldn't make sense. Let me break it down into three statements.

    1."In beginning was the word..."

    (en arche en ho logos) A.A very simple statement that the Word was in the beginning.

    2."and the word was with the God..."

    (kai ho logos en pros ton theon) A.This same Word was with God.

    3."and God was the word." -- Properly translated as "and the Word was God."

    (kai theos en ho logos) A.This same Word was God.

    Regarding statement 3 above, the correct English translation is "...and the Word was God," not "and God was the word." This is because if there is only one definite article ("ho"="the") in a clause where two nouns are in the nominative ("subject") form ("theos" and "logos"), then the noun with the definite article ("ho"="the") is the subject. In this case "ho logos" means that "the word" is the subject of the clause. Therefore, "...the Word was God" is the correct translation, not "God was the Word."1 But this does not negate the idea that John is speaking of only one God, not two, even though the Jehovah's Witnesses maintain that Jesus is "a god," or the "mighty god" as was addressed above.

    Is there suddenly a new god in the text of John 1:1? It is the same God that is being spoken of in part 2 as in part 3. How do the Jehovah's Witnesses maintain that the word had somehow become a god in this context, since there is only one God mentioned? Remember, the Jehovah's Witnesses teach that Jesus was Michael the Archangel. Therefore, is there any place in the Bible where an angel is called "a god," besides Satan being called the god of this world in 2 Cor. 4:3-4?

  • 9 years ago

    At Deuteronomy chapter 32 verse 39 the point being made is that the false gods of the nations have no share with Jehovah in his saving acts. They are unable to deliver their worshipers from disaster. This is evident from the preceding two verses. False gods had no share in the expressing of Jehovah's saving power. He alone is the true God, whereas the false gods are an unreality , non existent and powerless to help their worshipers in time of calamity. As for the reference to the Word being a god it does not disagree with statement at Deuteronomy chapter 32 verse 39. Because the "Word" does not stand in opposition to Jehovah nor is he a rival, as was the case with the false gods. Being God's firstborn Son "the Word" could rightly be described as a "god" or powerful one even as are God's other angelic sons at Psalms chapter 8 verse 5.

    As for the NWT it is printed from the original Hebrew and Greek Scriptures but in plain English for us to understand it better,also the Bible has been published in more than 2,300 languages and over 90% of the worlds population own one. More than a million Bibles are distributed each week. So NWT is not a Jehovah Witnesse Bible because the majority that request it is not.

    Source(s): www.watchtower.org with reference from the New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures
  • Jesse
    Lv 6
    9 years ago

    The answer to your dilemma is understanding God, and when having created all things, he set in to place laws of time, space and matter.

    Since he always was, is and will be, there is only one. One true God. On this we both agree.

    Deuteronomy 32:39 ''no god's with me.'' Was stated at a time before the fulfillment of the messiah. A time prophesied about when a line of David, a man would be born of a virgin, to bring the message of hope and offer salvation, to be persecuted and killed and thus pay through blood for all mankind.

    Certainly the greatest act of love.

    Was this worthy of becoming like God? Is it even possible to become like God?

    Well yes according to Genesis it is possible. Genesis 3:22 and 11:6

    So for Jesus, after all he did, it would be very possible, even appropriate for God to give him the keys to the kingdom.

    Did this make him God? No, Jesus said he would sit at the right hand of God and that he was a perfect reflection of God.

    Those laws that God originally placed in to effect are also laws by which He conforms, such as ''it is impossible for God to lie.'' But if this is true, how can He be all powerful and have nothing impossible for Him to do and yet not be able to do something? It's not a contradiction it is simple math. He can not lie because He is Holy. Just as he can not die, in any form.

    For us to believe based on one scripture, John 1:1 capitol G or not, that God died for all mankind, is to say He lies in that he always was, is and will be.

    So which is it?

    You have reasoned that God died, or part of Him died in the form of man, and he simply restored that part. So what was the great sacrifice? Can God die or is He forever?

    If you are mistaken by this, what else are you over looking?

  • 9 years ago

    In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God [also KJ, JB, Dy, Kx, NAB]." NE reads "what God was, the Word was." Mo says "the Logos was divine." AT and Sd tell us "the Word was divine." The interlinear rendering of ED is "a god was the Word." NW reads "the Word was a god"; NTIV uses the same wording.

    What is it that these translators are seeing in the Greek text that moves some of them to refrain from saying "the Word was God"? The definite article (the) appears before the first occurrence of the·os' (God) but not before the second. The articular (when the article appears) construction of the noun points to an identity, a personality, whereas a singular anarthrous (without the article) predicate noun before the verb (as the sentence is constructed in Greek)points to a quality about someone. So the text is not saying that the Word (Jesus) was the same as the God with whom he was but, rather, that the Word was godlike, divine, a god. (See 1984 Reference edition of NW, p. 1579.)

    What did the apostle John mean when he wrote John 1:1? Did he mean that Jesus is himself God or perhaps that Jesus is one God with the Father? In the same chapter, verse 18, John wrote: "No one ["no man," KJ, Dy] has ever seen God; the only Son ["the only-begotten god," NW], who is in the bosom of the Father, he has made him known." (RS) Had any human seen Jesus Christ, the Son? Of course! So,then, was John saying that Jesus was God? Obviously not. Toward the end of his Gospel, John summarized matters, saying: "These are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, [not God, but] the Son of God."—John 20:31, RS.

    Also keep in mind, that in the bible, when referring to Jehovah as God, the word God is capitalized. In John 1:1, it was not.

    Source(s): Reasoning on the scriptures
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  • 9 years ago

    Why do you twist the scriptures to your own destruction? Did you not read the context? Or are you just blinded? Deuteronomy 32:12 Jehovah alone kept leading him,

    And there was no foreign god along with him.

  • Mindy
    Lv 6
    9 years ago

    As if you REALLY want to know the answer(s). :-P

    Answer to # 1)

    Viewed in their proper setting, the texts of Deuteronomy 32:39 and John 1:1 in no way contradict each other. They are discussing ENTIRELY DIFFERENT MATTERS.

    At Deuteronomy 32:39, the point being made is that the false gods of the nations have no share with Jehovah in his saving acts. They are unable to deliver their worshipers from disaster. This is evident from the preceding two verses, which read: “Where are their gods, the rock in whom they sought refuge, who used to eat the fat of their sacrifices, to drink the wine of their drink offerings? Let them get up and help you. Let them become a concealment place for you.”

    Other parts of this song likewise indicate that these false gods had no share in the expressing of Jehovah’s saving power. With reference to the nation of Israel as represented in its forefather Jacob, verse 12 says: “Jehovah alone kept leading him, and there was no foreign god along with him.” Apostasy, however, set in among the Israelites, as verses 16, 17 and 21 tell us: “They began inciting him to jealousy with strange gods; with detestable things they kept offending him. They went sacrificing to demons, not to God, gods whom they had not known, new ones who recently came in, with whom your forefathers were not acquainted. They, for their part, have incited me to jealousy with what is no god.”

    Against this background, a SINCERE, UNBIASED person can appreciate that none of such false gods were ‘together with Jehovah’ in anything that he did. He alone is the true God, whereas the false gods are an unreality, nonexistent and powerless to help their worshipers in time of calamity.

    As for the reference to the Word’s ‘being a god,’ it does not disagree with the statement at Deuteronomy 32:39. Why not? Because the “Word” DOES NOT stand in OPPOSITION to Jehovah nor is he a rival, as was the case with the false gods. Then, too, in the phrase rendered “the Word was a god,” the term “god” is a predicate noun that describes “the Word.” Says the noted scholar Westcott, coproducer of the famous Westcott and Hort Greek text of the Christian Scriptures: “It describes the nature of the Word and does not identify His Person.” In view of the descriptive nature of the predicate noun for “god” in the original Greek, An American Translation renders John 1:1: “The Word was divine.” The New World Translation, however, retains the predicate noun and indicates the significance of the omission of the definite article by using the indefinite article.

    Being God’s firstborn Son, “the Word” could rightly be described as a “god” or powerful one, even as are God’s other angelic sons at Psalm 8:5 (Compare Hebrews 2:6-8). But neither the firstborn Son nor the other faithful angelic sons of God stand in OPPOSITION to their Creator, or try to equal him or substitute for him, as do false gods. As far as your LIE that the NWT is the only Bible that translates John 1:1 as "the Word was a god"... Please educate yourself: http://yhoo.it/v42T5S

    Answer to # 2)

    Yeppers, absolutely. There is but only ONE true ALMIGHTY God... Only ONE and that ONE is Jehovah.

    Answer to # 3)

    Neither are false. One is THE Almighty God and the other is a god or powerful mighty divine one who is the IMAGE of the Almighty God and is the perfect REFLECTION of God Almighty's glory.

    Answer to # 4)

    At times, individuals are known by more than one name. For example, the patriarch Jacob is also known as Israel, and the apostle Peter, as Simon (Genesis 49:1, 2; Matthew 10:2). Likewise,the Bible indicates that Michael is simply another name for Jesus Christ both BEFORE and AFTER his life on earth (not DURING). In his prehuman existence Jesus was called “the Word” (John 1:1). He also had the personal name Michael. By retaining the name Jesus AFTER his resurrection (Acts 9:5), “the Word” SHOWS that he is IDENTICAL with the Son of God ON EARTH. His resuming his heavenly name Michael and his title (or name) “The Word of God” (Re 19:13) TIES HIM IN WITH HIS PREHUMAN EXISTENCE (which is obvious you know little to nothing about). The very name Michael, asking as it does, “Who Is Like God?” points to the fact that Jehovah God is without like, or equal, and that Michael his ARCHangel is his great Champion or Vindicator which is what His Son Jesus Christ most certainly is.

    Answer to # 5)

    The very first one He created directly, more specifically, the very first one or thing in all creation that was made by God (God's very first creation, "the beginning (not the beginner) of the creation by God" - Rev 3:14). The one who is PERSONIFIED as "Wisdom" at Proverbs 8:22-30 who is identified at 1 Corinthians 1:24, 30, the one whom God was speaking to at Genesis 1:26. The only one who was produced directly by Almighty Jehovah God which God used as the agent to produce all other things in existence THROUGH.

    Source(s): Answer to # 6) If you understood Prov 2:1-5 you would understand that MUCH of "the very knowledge of God" is not visible on the "surface" of scripture. You would understand that one must dig DEEP into scripture, going beyond the mere "surface" as if they were seeking SILVER and HIDDEN treasures. Answer to # 7) Jesus NEVER lied (1 Peter 2:22). Your view CONFLICTS with Gal 1:1, which ascribes the resurrection of Jesus to THE FATHER, not to the Son. Using a similar mode of expression, at Luke 8:48 Jesus is quoted as saying to a woman: “Your faith has made you well.” Did she heal HERSELF? No; it was power FROM GOD THROUGH CHRIST that healed her because she had faith (Luke 8:46; Acts 10:38). Likewise, by his PERFECT OBEDIENCE as a human, Jesus provided the moral basis for THE FATHER to raise him from the dead, thus acknowledging Jesus as God’s Son. Because of Jesus’ FAITHFUL COURSE OF LIFE, it could properly be said that Jesus himself was responsible for his resurrection.
  • Anonymous
    9 years ago

    You are very right and I can't seem to comprehend why they think their teachings are always correct when they obviously misapply scripture concerning many important bible doctrines.

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