Questions For Jehovah Witnesses?

1. Jehovah said in Deuteronomy 32:39 there are no gods with me.

John 1:1 is implying Jesus is a god and is with God.

There is clearly something wrong here, there are no gods with Jehovah,

but your bible is saying Jesus is a god and is with God.

Why is your bible NWT contradicting itself ?

Deuteronomy 32:39 NWT Jehovah Witness Bible

SEE now that I—I am he

And there are no gods together with me.

I put to death, and I make alive.

I have severely wounded, and I—I will heal,

And there is no one snatching out of my hand.

John 1:1 NWT Jehovah Witness Bible

In [the] beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god.

Jehovah said in Isaiah 43:10 Before me there was no God formed,

and after me there continued to be none

Isaiah 43:10-11 NWT Jehovah Witness Bible

“YOU are my witnesses,” is the utterance of Jehovah, “even my servant whom I have chosen, in order that YOU may know and have faith in me, and that YOU may understand that I am the same One. Before me there was no God formed, and after me there continued to be none. 11 I—I am Jehovah, and besides me there is no savior.”

Jesus CANT be a god or a lesser God because

Jehovah said there are no gods together with me and he also said

before me there was no God formed and after me there continued to be none.

2. Isn't it true that there is only ONE True God ?

3. There are two 1+1=2 which one is false ? the small god or the big God ?

4. If Jesus is Michael the Archangel where in scripture does Jehovah ever say Michael the Archangel is the Only Begotten Son ?

John 3:16 says Jesus is the Only Begotten Son

5. If all angels are sons of God which one is the Only Begotten son from the father ? where in scripture does Jehovah ever say to any angel is the Only Begotton son ?

6. If Micheal the Archangel is Jehovah's first creation. Where in Scripture does Jehovah ever say Micheal is the first creation ? Where is the word first creation and Michael used together in scripture ?

firstborn can mean firstborn into a family and it can also mean a title of high rank.

The word first creation is NOT in colossians 1:15. It does NOT even say michael in that verse.

David who was the last one born in his family in ( 1 Chronicles 2:13-15 ) was called firstborn by Jehovah in ( Psalm 89:20,27)

1 Chronicles 2:13-15 NWT David is the last one born

Jes´se, in turn, became father to his firstborn E·li´ab, and A·bin´a·dab the second, and Shim´e·a the third, 14 Ne·than´el the fourth, Rad´dai the fifth, 15 O´zem the sixth, David the seventh.

Psalm 89:20,27 NWT David is called firstborn by Jehovah

20 I have found David my servant;

With my holy oil I have anointed him,

27 Also, I myself shall place him as firstborn,

The most high of the kings of the earth.

7. in Acts 2:32 God Ressurred Jesus and in John 2:19-21 Jesus said he would rise up his own body in three days and in 1 Corinthians 15:3-4 says Jesus was rised up on the thrid day.

something doesnt add up here, who ressureced who ? Is Jesus lying ?

Acts 2:32 NWT

This Jesus God resurrected, of which fact we are all witnesses

John 2:19-21 NWT

In answer Jesus said to them: “Break down this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.” 20 Therefore the Jews said: “This temple was built in forty-six years, and will you raise it up in three days?” 21 But he was talking about the temple of his body.

1 Corinthians 15:3-4 NWT

For I handed on to YOU, among the first things, that which I also received, that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures; 4 and that he was buried, yes, that he has been raised up the third day according to the Scriptures;

8. Jesus resurrected physically.

Jesus said in Luke 24:39 NWT See my hands and my feet, that it is I myself; feel me and see, because a spirit does not have flesh and bones just as YOU behold that I have.”

Jesus also showed them his hands and his feet

Luke 24:40 NWT

[[And as he said this he showed them his hands and his feet.]]

Jesus also appeared to Simon in Luke 24:34

Luke 24:34 NWT

saying: “For a fact the Lord was raised up and he appeared to Simon!”

Why does the watchtower teach Jesus was resurrected spiritually and not of the flesh ?

2 John 1:7 NWT

For many deceivers have gone forth into the world, persons not confessing Jesus Christ as coming in the flesh. This is the deceiver and the antichrist.

Update:

John 1:1 in all other bibles read In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

John 1:1 in the Jehovah Witness Bible is in serious error since it contradicts with Deuteronomy 32:39

8 Answers

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  • Anonymous
    9 years ago
    Favorite Answer

    The Jehovah Witnesses are ignorant of the scripture.

    The Trinity is this: God the Father, God the Son, God the Holy Spirit.

    These three make up the Trinity.

    Trinity isn't in the Bible. But the Bible teaches the Trinity.

    IN the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

    JOHN 1:1

    How is this verse contradicting itself?

  • Anonymous
    5 years ago

    Oh my goodness,Witnesses might talk to non individuals everyonce in a even as but when anyone is disconnected from the church then no one will talk to that character,even though they're your son/daughter. Thats a tousled factor to do

  • 9 years ago

    1. Jehovah is one God Psalm 83:18

    2. Jesus is the Son of God, not God the Son

    Flesh cannot exist in Heaven.

    Holy Spirit is a force, not a person.

    Source(s): Psalm 83:18
  • Anonymous
    9 years ago

    Greetings,

    If you honestly wanted complete answers you’d present ONE verse at a time. However ALL your arguments have been fully disproved many times here on Y!A.

    Jn 1:1 and Deut. 32:39 do not contradict each other since they are discussing different things. Deuteronomy is comparing Jehovah to false Gods who could not equal Almighty God and did not represent the Only True God.

    But, God's statement in Deut. did not exclude others from properly being referred to as "Gods" since the Bible clearly shows that others can properly be called "God" (ELOHIM/QEOS). Jehovah himself applied the term to Moses, other humans and angels (Ex.4:16; 7:1; Ps.8:5; 82:1,6; 136:2; 138:1; Jn.10:34). This does not denote a polytheistic meaning. This does not put these individuals down on the same level as false gods who are called QEOS/god, nor up on the same level as The Almighty God. This is because the sense of "god" is relative. Humans such as Moses and angels are correctly called "god," but they still have Jehovah God over them.

    Both Ps.45:6,7 and Hebrews 1:8,9 addresses the king/Christ as "God" but also says that he has a "God" over him. This shows that two Gods can be referred to: "Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever. ... therefore, YOUR GOD hath anointed Thee."

    So when Heb. 1:8,9 applies Ps.45:6 to Jesus it clearly limits Christ being called "God" to a representative sense and in a position less than Almighty God. This is because it states that Jesus still has a God over him: "therefore God, your God, has set you above your companions."

    This is a fatal problem for Trinitarians because they cannot have TWO God's because the Trinity teaches that Jesus and the Father are exactly the same "God."

    On the other hand, the Witnesses' belief is in complete harmony with God's Word: Only ONE can be called "God" in the *absolute sense* while God's Word also calls others "god/s."

    Many verses are explicit in showing Jesus had a beginning of existence: Col 1:15-22, Rev 3:14, Mic 5:2, Jn 6:57 and Pro 8.

    At Col.1:15, the Bible explicitly states that Jesus was a created being. He is said to be the "firstborn of all creation.

    First, the Greek word "firstborn" (PRWTOTOKOS) is used 130 times in the Bible (LXX). It always indicates a beginning of something that was not in existence before. PRWTOTOKOS never becomes "detached" from the primary meaning of a beginning of existence.

    Next, grammatically the phrase "firstborn of creation" (PRWTOTOKOS PASHS KTISEWS) demands that Jesus be part of creation; a "creature." This is because this grammatical structure is a "partitive genitive" which means that the firstborn has to be part of the group mentioned. The expression "the firstborn of" occurs over 30 times in the Bible, and in every instance the meaning is the same: the firstborn is part of the group. The "firstborn of the sheep" is a sheep (Gen 4:4), the "first born of the animals" is an animal, (Neh. 10:36) and "the firstborn of creation" is a creature!

    The genitive places the Christ as *part of* the created order (KTISEWS). So the evidence is explicit that Jesus is a created being.

    Some use Lk 24:37-39 as evidence for their belief that those resurrected to heaven take their physical bodies with them. They claim that Christ here rejected the Apostles' understanding that he was a spirit being. However, all the explicit statements in Scripture asserting that the resurrected Christ has a spirit body argues against this. Contextually there is a better interpretation that does not cause a contradiction in God's Word:

    When we examine Luke's use of the word "spirit" we find that he uses it to refer to "demons" five times and NEVER uses the word 'spirit' in reference to spirit *bodies* or to angels (Lk. 4:33; 8:29; 9:39, 42, cf. Mt.14:26). Therefore, according to Luke's normal usage, Jesus' reply had absolutely nothing to do with whether he had a spirit or fleshly body in heaven.

    So, Christ was simply assuring them that he was not an evil spirit, which would explain the disciples' fright. Christ's reply ONLY shows that he materialized a fleshly body for the occasion to prove his resurrection (Acts 1:3 "positive proofs").

    This can be the only logical and Scriptural conclusion when all the facts are examined.

    Since this verse has nothing to do with Christ's body in heaven any use of this verse as evidence that Christ has a spirit body is twisting the verse out of context.

    Every explicit Scripture absolutely confirms that has an invisible spirit body and not a physical one: (1Pt.3:18; 1Cor 15:45,50; Heb.1:3; 1Tim.6:16).

    Every explicit scripture shows that at every point of his existence Jesus has a God over him and he was less than Almighty God (Mic.5:2-4; Jn. 14:28; 20:17; Mk.13:32; Rm.15:6; Rev.3:2,12). At the highest position he will ever attain, Jesus is still "subject" to *GOD* the same way we are "subject" to him (1Cor.15:27,28).

    Yours,

    BAR-ANERGES

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  • Anonymous
    9 years ago

    "Why is your bible NWT contradicting itself?" the asker quotes

    It is evident that the JWs contradict themselves for reasons they themselves only know even though they deny the charges made against them. They claim to go as far as using the root word to be substituted for the actual meaning of the entire word which D.A. Carson (Biblical Scholar) states that presuming that a word's meaning is bound up with its root or roots is "linguistic nonsense" and an "etymological fallacy."

  • 9 years ago

    First off: You A S K E D this question within the last 2 days... and you got answers to it. however you are looking for a " specific" answer to your question.

    When Jesus Christ was on earth, he gave his listeners a lesson in observing signs and acting accordingly. He was talking about something of far-reaching importance. The Bible reports: “The Pharisees and Sadducees approached him and, to tempt him, they asked him to display to them a sign from heaven. In reply he said to them: ‘When evening falls you are accustomed to say, “It will be fair weather, for the sky is fire-red”; and at morning, “It will be wintry, rainy weather today, for the sky is fire-red, but gloomy-looking.” You know how to interpret the appearance of the sky, but the signs of the times you cannot interpret.’”—Matthew 16:1-3.

    .. you too are looking for a " sign".

  • Beck
    Lv 5
    9 years ago

    to: MrC. when the Bible speaks of the "Godhead", thats the Trinity.

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