Edgar asked in Arts & HumanitiesHistory · 9 years ago

Do you happen to know the percentage of people living in rural and urban areas during the medieval period?

The medieval period = middle ages...

Geographical area: Europe

Provide information about SPAIN if possible

3 Answers

  • 9 years ago
    Favorite Answer

    Spanish census figures only go back to 1842.

    You need to come to some understanding that prior to the Industrial Revolution and since the Neolithical era - the major industry world over was agriculture.

    Thus there would be a lot fewer members of society living in villages/towns/cities. Cities would be few and far between.

    My guess would be that 90% of Spain's population would be rural at the beginning of the Middle Ages. However, as the Middled Ages 'progressed' the population of Europe rose considerably. It is therefore conceivable in some regions the urban population may have rise as high as 30% prior to the Plague entering the picture.

    These are 'guesstimates' on my part based on what I can glean from my source, cited below.

    Source(s): Fischer, David Hackett - The Great Wave: Price Revolutions and the Rhythm of History. New York: Oxford university Press: 1996, pp. 11-23
  • Anonymous
    9 years ago

    weyaye mate 34% and in spain they like to have partys

  • 9 years ago

    Maybe you can find some information here


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