It says "gods", not Gods. Because English has reasons for every rule.
Look to the NT, the fulfillment of why those OT verses were put there in the first place. (The entire Psalm is about good and evil judges.) In John 10:34, why did Jesus reply to the Pharisees with saying "in YOUR Law"? Wasn't it also Jesus' Law, being a Jew, while also having the only right to claim godhood? Why did He say it that way? And why did the Pharisees fall silent when He said it? Pharisees were religious judges, judging others by the minutia of the Law (nitpickers w/ others, generous w/ themselves). The judges referred to in Ps. 82 cannot give eternal life to those they judge, can they? Therefore they cannot be "God" or even "gods", as God alone gives life. Jesus was saying He was equal w/ the Father by being Messiah, so therefore only He was a real judge as well as God, which He plainly states farther along in the chapter.
Perhaps Jesus knew the Pharisees thought of themselves as "gods", and Jesus pointed out that fact to them? If they condemned Him, they therefore condemned themselves at the same time. And which religion does THAT remind you of....., mormons.
Why does this verse say "of God and of Christ..... with HIM..."? If Jesus isn't God, why does it conclude with the word, "Him"? Who's "Him"? Jesus? God?
Emmanuel -God with us.
....for they cannot die anymore, because they are equal to angels and are sons of God, being sons of the resurrection.
Blessed and holy is the one who takes part in the first resurrection. The second death has no power over them, but they WILL BE [nor currently are] priests of God and of Christ, and they will reign with Him for a thousand years.
--- AKA "judges".
· 8 years ago