Christians and atheists: Can you please explain this phrase?
This a phrase from a English site. I don't know they have used the verb to be in present tense?
(He asked for Carol but there is no one working here called Carol.)
Why the author didn't say "there was no one working "?
What does "called Carol" mean?
is "called' related to "is "??
can you explain me please?
- AndiGravityLv 79 years agoFavorite Answer
In this case, the two verbs do not need to agree in tense because they refer to ideas which occur in two different time frames. The request "he asked for Carol" refers to something someone did in the past, and is not doing in the present, so a past tense verb is appropriate. You are supposed to infer that someone asked for Carol in the past, but whoever did so is not asking for her at the present time.
On the other hand, if it remains true that no one named Carol works at the establishment where the request was made, then it is a fact at the present tense, and so a present tense verb would be appropriate, because saying "no one named Carol worked here" would imply that someone named Carol now does work there.
So, he asked for Carol (past tense), but there is no one working here (present tense) called Carol.
As for what "called" means, in this context it means "named".
Most languages have more than one way of saying "named", and in English, we use the word "called" because if you want to verbally get someone's attention, you call out to them. So, when referring to either a person or object, the verb "called" means either "named" (such as "she's called Carol"), or "labeled" (as in "she just called me a jerk"... even though you are not actually named "jerk", that's how you were referred to).
- Anonymous9 years ago
Without giving us the thorough background of this phrase, you cannot expect an accurate answer.
From the information given, the person was asking about someone called Carol (an English female name,) at a place of employment. The person asking must have asked if someone so named was working there at present. If they had asked if there had ever been someone named Carol at that establishment, they may have answered differently.
From your apparent puzzlement, I deduce that English must not be your first language. There are languages that use tenses and describe time differently from English. I don't know enough about this to speculate which yours might be. (Yoruba does not have this ambiguity, though, and I doubt any European, nor Slavonic language does, either.)
Your question is placed in the wrong section- probably because YAHOO! thought you were talking about religious songs called "carols." But then you asked specifically for Christians and Atheists to answer this question. It looks like you are using some sort of thesaurus programme that has misled you!
- shirleykinsLv 79 years ago
1) I'll try.
2) Yes, the first half of the sentence is in past tense and the last half is in present tense, but there is a reason for that.
3) What the author means is: "He made a request (past) but I don't believe we can help him even now" (present).
4) "having the name of Carol," "by the name of Carol"
5) Yes, that's the meaning, but this is how we say it (the idiom). The source you are using for learning English is a good one, because you will end up talking like someone who really knows.
6) The best way to make your request would be: "Can you explain that for me, please?"Source(s): As a Christian, yes, I like to help when I'm able. As a commandment keeper I like to see things orderly and right, and it's always a pleasure to meet someone who cares about the details!
- HalLv 59 years ago
"He (in the recent past) asked for (someone named) Carol, but there is no one working here (at the present time) called (named or who answers to the name of) Carol."
The change in tense from past to present merely indicates a continuing condition--no Carol here.
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- leiaLv 69 years ago
called meaning named, no one meaning no person. basically it's saying "he asked for Carol but there is no person working here by the name Carol."
- Anonymous9 years ago
"is" - In this case, "is non-existent", like currently - and forever past and future.
"called" - Past tense because it is short for, "that was ever called, including now, but the past as well"... Carol.
Basically it's "agnostic" on the view of Carol, because Carol might work there in the future.
Were you studying the mythology of Carolism?
- ?Lv 43 years ago
it isn't feasible for someone to have a own bump into with God and later go with that He does no longer exist. "once kept, continually kept" signifies that someone who has common the loose present of salvation from Jesus Christ, their Lord and Savior want by no potential concern about their very last destination. the fellow who rejects Jesus hasn't ever truly encountered Him. that signifies that the fellow went by the motions with no own bump into with God. it particularly is amazingly like sitting and observing television with out plugging it in. there is not any potential. to those human beings the word should be "by no potential kept, nonetheless no longer kept". once you've a own bump into with the President of u.s., you'll by no potential doubt that he exists. you truthfully will by no potential declare that he does no longer exist, a similar is genuine of an bump into with God... .
- PentexLv 59 years ago
Well, because using "was" could imply that there is now.
- 9 years ago
@ i sharpen - You are truly an idiot, you're making your religion look bad you inbred tit.
On topic: I have no idea what it mans :/
- 9 years ago
I secretly dream of giraffes behaving erotically.