Protestants: Why does the King James Version Bible have the word "Hell" within it?

The original Vulgate Bible never had the word Hell in it. The word "Hell" comes from the Old English word "Hel" which was used back in 725 AD. I noticed that the Catholic and Eastern Orthodox Bibles don't use the word "Hell". Instead our Bibles use Sheol (Hebrew), Hades (Greek), and Gehenna (Yiddish) which would be Gehinnom in Hebrew.

Peace Be With You

Update:

I'm intrested because many of you claim that the King James Version originated from the Vulgate Bible.

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  • Matt
    Lv 7
    9 years ago
    Best Answer

    They picked and chose what they liked and what they felt they could justify.

    Leaving the Catholic Church came with a price. They had to throw out a lot of books and teaching to make sure there wasn't as many holes in their teaching.

  • Anonymous
    9 years ago

    1) Protestants: Why does the King James Version Bible have the word "Hell" within it?

    Simply: in the time of King James, "Hell" was the English word (the only English word) that meant "land of the dead". It was probably an archaic meaning even at that time, but it was (and probably still is) the **single** English word that most accurately ***translates*** the underlying words. As "Hell" has many additional connotations in modern English, it is not considered an accurate translation by modern Bible translators.

    2) The original Vulgate Bible never had the word Hell in it.

    Well...of course it didn't, "Hell" being an English word. The Latin Vulgate didn't have ANY English words in it - and the King James Version has, I believe, only one Latin word in it (though there may be a very few more).

    3) I noticed that the Catholic and Eastern Orthodox Bibles don't use the word "Hell". Instead our Bibles use Sheol (Hebrew), Hades (Greek), and Gehenna (Yiddish) which would be Gehinnom in Hebrew.

    You're looking at modern Bibles. Jerome's Latin Vulgate did not use such transliterations. Here is an English Roman Catholic Bible from the time of the King James Version (the original Douay-Rheims):

    http://www.archive.org/stream/holiebiblefaithf01en...

    Look at verse 22 - the first verse in the KJV where "Hell" appears, and we see it here as well.

    Here is the 1750 Douay-Rhemis Challoner Revision, the official English version of the Roman Catholic Bible until the 1950s or 60s:

    http://haydock1859.tripod.com/id525.html

    So: you see that this is not a case of "Roman Catholics translated better than the KJV translators" but - rather - "The English meaning of the word 'Hell' has changed in the last 400 years."

    Regarding this remark:

    I'm intrested because many of you claim that the King James Version originated from the Vulgate Bible.

    That is largely inaccurate. The primary sources of the KJV were the original language documents. Although the KJV translators certainly referred to the Latin Vulgate, naturally they did not use Latin words (excepting the instance I noted) in an English translation!

    - Jim, http://www.bible-reviews.com/

  • 9 years ago

    Some Bible translations create confusion by rendering two different Greek words—Ge′en·na and Hai′des—as just the one word, “hell.” In the Bible, the term Ge′en·na refers to total destruction, without hope of a resurrection. By contrast, those in Hai′des, or Hades, do have the hope of being resurrected.

    Thus, after Jesus died and was raised up, the apostle Peter assured his audience that Jesus “was not left in hell.” (Acts 2:27, 31, 32; Psalm 16:10; King James Version) The word translated “hell” in this verse is the Greek word Hai′des. Jesus did not go to some fiery place. Hades, or “hell,” was the grave. But Jesus is not the only one whom God releases from Hades.

  • 9 years ago

    Because the catholics refuse to admit there is a hell because then they would have to admit their purgatory is a lie, which it is......like all these other teachings that are NOT scriptural

    The Roman Catholic Church contends that its origin is the death, resurrection, and ascension of Jesus Christ in approximately 30 A.D. The Catholic Church proclaims itself to be the Church that Jesus Christ died for, the Church that was established and built by the Apostles. Is that the true origin of the Catholic Church? On the contrary. Even a cursory reading of the New Testament will reveal that the Catholic Church does not have its origin in the teachings of Jesus, or His apostles. In the New Testament, there is no mention of the papacy, worship / adoration of Mary (or the immaculate conception of Mary, the perpetual virginity of Mary, the assumption of Mary, or Mary as co-redemptrix and mediatrix), petitioning saints in Heaven for their prayers, apostolic succession, the ordinances of the church functioning as sacraments, infant baptism, confession of sin to a priest, purgatory, indulgences, or the equal authority of church tradition and Scripture. So, if the origin of the Catholic Church is not in the teachings of Jesus and His apostles, as recorded in the New Testament, what is the true origin of the Catholic Church?

    For the first 280 years of Christian history, Christianity was banned by the Roman empire, and Christians were terribly persecuted. This changed after the “conversion” of the Roman Emperor Constantine. Constantine “legalized” Christianity at the Edict of Milan in A.D. 313. Later, in A.D. 325, Constantine called together the Council of Nicea, in an attempt to unify Christianity. Constantine envisioned Christianity as a religion that could unite the Roman Empire, which at that time was beginning to fragment and divide. While this may have seemed to be a positive development for the Christian church, the results were anything but positive. Just as Constantine refused to fully embrace the Christian faith, but continued many of his pagan beliefs and practices, so the Christian church that Constantine promoted was a mixture of true Christianity and Roman paganism.

    Source(s): Simple Historical facts
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  • Moi
    Lv 7
    9 years ago

    You answered your own question

    "The word "Hell" comes from the Old English word "Hel" which was used back in 725 AD."

    The KJV is rendered in Olde Englishe

    ;-)

  • 9 years ago

    The Bible is full of just such "transliterations." This will blow you away. Look up the word "cross" in the New Testament (Greek). It doesn't exist until a series of transliterations. I hate to agree with the Jehovah's Witnesses, but they happen to be right on that one fact. It's a Catholic convention that uses the word "cross."

  • Anonymous
    9 years ago

    Hades is the Greek word. So that's not a translation, it's just a transliteration.

  • Linda
    Lv 7
    9 years ago

    The King James, printed in 1611 has over 30,000 errors of translation. That's just one of them.

    Never fear, God is in charge of the bible. The truth is still in any version. It is just a little harder to find in the KJ :)

    We spend our lives teaching people about the bible and we use any bible that the person asks for.

    Source(s): One of Jehovah's witnesses
  • Anonymous
    9 years ago

    because religion is full of sexual sadists who LOVE the idea of Hell and endless torture. It gives them a stiff one.

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