Anonymous
Anonymous asked in Arts & HumanitiesHistory · 9 years ago

Why did Hitler invade Austria & Sudetenland in 1938?

It's for my research paper and I just need to explain why he invaded the two of them.

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  • Anonymous
    9 years ago
    Best Answer

    he did not. Causes of ww2 are war treaty of Versailles, England and French desire for world domination, Desire of people to choose their own destiny, Polish massacre of ethnic Germans, Under World War 2 Treaty of Versailles, Jewish Bankers cut Germany in pieces. A piece of Germany - Alsace-Lorraine was given to France, a piece of Germany - Eupen and Malmedy was given to Belgium, a piece of Germany - Northern Schleswig was given to Denmark, a piece of Germany - Hultschin was given to Czechoslovakia, a pieces of Germany - West Prussia, Posen and Upper Silesia was given to Poland, several pieces of Germany - Saar, Danzig and Memel were brought under league of Nations Some of this land was given to Poland and some made into new states of Estonia, Lithuania and Latavia.

    The American President, Woodrow Wilson, was advised at Versailles War Conference by Jew Bernard Baruch, The British Prime Minister, Lloyd George, was "advised" by Alfred Milner, Rothschild employee, and Jew Sir Phillip Sassoon, The French leader, Georges Clemenceau, was "advised" by Jew Georges Mandel, the interpreter was another Jew named Mantoux; the Military Adviser Jew called Kish. Mr. Lloyd George and others were hazy about geography. Their Jewish secretaries, however, were very much on the spot on such matters. These Jews met at 6 p.m. in the evenings; and worked out details for World War 2 that mapped out the decisions for the following day's conference of the "Big Four".

    The total sum due to be paid by German as war reparations was decided by an Inter-Allied Reparations Commission at 269 billion gold marks (the equivalent of around 100,000 tonnes of pure gold).

    1923. France was first to defy treaty of Versailles when it sent troops to Ruhr.

    January 13th 1935, 100% Saar region voted to rejoin Germany,

    1936 -100% of Rhineland welcomed German forces with jubilation and sense of freedom

    March 1936- 99% of Austrians voted for unification with Germany in the plebiscite.

    September 30, 1938. Similar situation was prevailing in Sudetenland. In order to evaluate the situation the British government sent Lord Runciman to the Sudetenland. In his report on 16 September 1938 he wrote: "I have great sympathy for the cause of the Sudeten Germans. It is difficult to be governed by a foreign nation, and my impression is that Czechoslovak rule in the Sudetenland displays such a lack of tact and understanding, and so much petty intolerance and discrimination, that dissatisfaction among the German population must inevitably lead to outrage and rebellion."

    'Danzig had 95% ethnic germans and had with 97.6% majority had voted against forcibly union with poland. Hitler merely wanted the people to decide their fate.

    Britain has never acknowledged peoples right of self-determination, whether in India (where those who favored independence were tied to English cannon) or in Ireland (where almost the entire population was annihilated because they would not submit to British domination.) Then Chamberlain gave a silly war Guarantee to Poland.

    Emboldened by the war Guarantee given England Poland refused to budge or allow plebiscite. No one can tolerate continued murder of their kin. Hitler finally took matters into his own hands and entered Poland to rescue his people.

    Had England and France not attacked Germany (which they did on 3rd September, 1939) there would have been no WW2. It was because of England the aggressor that so many died. He did not want war with Britain and France. He was very surprised when they both declared war on him due to German corridor. http://saveyourheritage.com/bloody_sunda…

    Was Danzig worth a war? Unlike the 7 million Hong Kongnese whom the British surrendered to Beijing, who didn’t want to go, the Danzigers were clamoring to return to Germany.

    If Hitler wanted the world, why did he not build strategic bombers, instead of two-engine Dorniers and Heinkels that could not even reach Britain from Germany?

    Why did he let the British army go at Dunkirk?

    Why did he offer the British peace, twice, after Poland fell, and again after France fell?

    Why, when Paris fell, did Hitler not demand the French fleet, as the Allies demanded and got the Kaiser’s fleet? Why did he not demand bases in French-controlled Syria to attack Suez? Why did he beg Benito Mussolini not to attack Greece?

    Because Hitler never wanted war but simple a plebiscite to allow people to rejoin home /Germany.

    http://lovkap.blogspot.com/2011/03/who-is-responsi...

  • Anonymous
    9 years ago

    He didn't invade.

    Many Austrians (who also felt disappointed after WW1) wanted to join the German state (Austrians are also, historically, Germans). Finally in 1938 a fascist plot performed a coup in Austria - no one really protested. Afterwards Hitler and the new Austrian leaders arranged the Anschluss of Austria to the Reich.

    North, Western and Southwestern Bohemia (dubbed Sudetenland) were ceded by Czechoslovakia as a result of German political and military pressure, when British and French leaders refused to help them in Munich 1938.

  • 9 years ago

    Hitler had a vision that all 'Germanic' peoples wanted to be united in one geopolitical entity. He perceived Austria as 'Germanic' - especially since that was where he was born. Sudetenland in his view had been 'robbed' from Germany and he wanted it back.

    Not everyone in Austria agreed with Hitler's worldview. The Sudetenland's culture was likely such that the general public was happy at first to have ownership return to German hands - until the war got underway and all Hitler's 'Germanic' people were forced to suffer under and because of his rule.

  • 9 years ago

    He didn't. He was given the right to take them by the Munich Agreement in 1938. This was part of the appeasement when Britain and France gave him these territories in exchange for an end to his military and territorial ambitions. He simply marched into the Sudetenland unopposed; this was part of Czechoslovakia but was heavily populated by German speakers. Austrians largely wanted to be a part of Germany and he simply annexed their territory - they were also German speakers. Hitler considered these and other territories to be part of Greater Germany.

    He breache the agreement very quickly by marching into the Rhineland and the rest of Czechoslovakia and finally the western half of Poland. This was one step too far and Britain and France honoured their treaty obligations and declared war on Germany.

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  • 9 years ago

    No. It's because it had too many mud-bloods

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