The KJV is the only translation that gets this right.
I just spent 2 years in Italy. Do you know what Happy Easter is? It's "buona pasqua."
Are they mistranslating something. Pasqua is the italian equivalent for the Greek word "Pascha" which is mostly translated "passover" in scripture.
it's instructive to notice that the end of Acts 12:3 says "(Then were the days of unleavened bread).
Have you ever read Leviticus 23:5-6?
5 In the fourteenth day of the first month at even is the Lord's passover.
6 And on the fifteenth day of the same month is the feast of unleavened bread unto the Lord: seven days ye must eat unleavened bread.
Passover is on the 14th day of the Month, and the days of unleavened bread are 7 days that start on the 15th of the month.
Therefore, in Acts 12:3-4, the Passover was at least 1 day in the past. Only an illiterate, ignorant Bible ignoramus would be stupid enough to translate the word as "Passover" unless they were dumb enough to think that Herod was planning to wait an entire year until Passover came back around.
Easter is a pagan holiday that Roman loyalists celebrated. It occured usually approximately a week after Passover. Just as this current year on our calendar, passover was Tuesday (Monday night as we Gentiles call it) and Easter is the following Sunday. During that time, and in that culture, the term "Pascha" could be used for the Passover or for Easter interchangeably - just as is still the case in Europe today. Do you know what "Passover" is in Italian? It's "Pasqua." "Pasqua ebraica" to be specific. There are two "Pasquas." One is Passover, and one is Easter. They are a week apart.
The same was true in Acts 12 as is true now in that part of the world. Herod was waiting for Easter, not Passover. Passover had already happened that year.
The King James translators got this right, because unlike modern translators, they actually had an elementary understanding of the Bible and of the culture during that time.
The modern translators, are pretty ignorant and pompous to say that this should be translated "Passover." They only show their own ignorance of the Bible by making such a statement. Do they really think that all the KJ translators were asleep at the wheel and didn't think of the uniformity-in-translation principle before letting this one slip through the cracks?
Do a quick study on homonyms just in the English language and you'll quickly see how futile the uniformity-in-translation principle is. Imagine translating "pupil" the same way every time regardless of context, even though sometimes it refers to a student, and other times it refers to part of an eye ball. Context is everything. The only people who demand uniformity-in-translation are either uninformed novices, or they are deliberately deceptive and hypocritical. They use the argument to attack the one translation that gives them heartburn (KJV seems to do this to most of the Laodicean professional Christians) all the while not disclosing that their "preferred" version violates the same so-called principle just as many times. Then uninformed novices (like most on this page) repeat the nonsense without having a clue what they are talking about.
An Elementary knowledge of the Jewish holiday structure vs. the Roman Easter celebration and the times they occur on the calendar plus simple knowledge of the nomenclature makes it crystal clear that "Easter" is the only choice for Acts 12:4, and you can only find it in one translation (KJ21/NAV is not a new translation but an attempt to update the KJV).