Does god condone rape anywhere in the Bible?

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  • Demi
    Lv 7
    9 years ago
    Favorite Answer

    I'm pretty sure the women children in Numbers 31:18 where just thrilled to suddenly be married off to the very men who had just slaughtered their families. Everyone yelled "mazel tov!" and they happily skipped off to the marriage tent. No rape there. Nope, none at all.

    And yes, that is a command from their deity as to how to treat the residents of the place they were attacking.

    Numbers 31:18 But all the women children, that have not known a man by lying with him, keep alive for yourselves.

    Such things were common for the time around the world. What made the early Israelites very different from my own ancestors was they killed male children rather than take them back as farm hands/helpers and later giving them rights of inheritance. I suppose they were attacking "foreigners" though and in the case of my ancestors, we usually only attacked our neighbors. Well, until forced christianization, then we started leaving in droves and slaughtering everything in sight. (We still kept the women and children though) I believe you call this the beginning of the "Viking age".

    Another huge difference - Heathens admit our ancestors did such things and in our case, this is usually - almost always - our direct ancestors. I have no idea why so many christians have a problem with such verses, especially considering those are almost never, ever their actual ancestors, only their spiritual ancestors. If they were actual ancestors they'd be Jewish, not christian.

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  • Anonymous
    9 years ago

    The laws regarding rape in Deuteronomy 22:28-29 clearly indicate that raping a woman is a sin, but only because she is a piece of property that is being vandalized. These verses show that either her father, husband, or fiancee is the person considered to be victimized by the act, hence recompense must be made to the male. In the story of Sodom and Gomorrah, Lot willingly offered to let his daughters be gang-raped to prevent the same from happening to angels disguised as men, and was henceforth declared to be righteous and godly.

    Also, Numbers 31:17-18 implies that the Jews were commanded by their god to take all female virgins of the Midianite nation as personal sex slaves.

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  • Dad
    Lv 6
    9 years ago

    It does, but you have to remember that back then women were property, owned in turns by their fathers, their husbands and their sons. Rape was a matter of abusing property. An unmarried woman who was raped was no longer a virgin, therefore undesirable for purely producing offspring that belonged to her future husband. Her dowry would have to be much larger to make her marketable. Rape was a property crime and required the rapist to either take proper ownership, eh, marry the woman, or compensate her father in other ways for the loss.

    Rape of a married woman was even more serious, because any children that might result would be of doubtful paternity, confusing ownership even more. (There was also the insult of abusing a man's property.) So the Bible comes to the right conclusion, even though its reasons are very alien to our culture.

    Source(s): Skepsis 1:1
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  • 9 years ago

    Dad is right on this point. If you look at the penalty for rape in the OT it is to compensate the father of a virgin (for his loss of property). The offence against the woman does not seem to enter into it. Similarly if you look at the ten commandments as presented in Exodus, "Thou shalt not covet thy neighbour's wife" is placed between not coveting houses and not coveting other stuff, as though a wife was a man's second most important possession, the first being his house.

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  • 9 years ago

    Some have claimed so, where the Mosaic Law said that if a man raped an unmarried woman, he had to marry her and could never divorce her, but that would have prevented rape, not encouraged it. He couldn't just walk away scot free--he had to stay around and provide for her and her children the rest of his life under penalty of death--hardly the goal of a rapist.

    Best regards,

    Mike

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  • 9 years ago

    He tells them exactly what will happen after they win the battle, as part of their "spoils" is "ravishing" the captive women. --so yes, he does.

    " Lo, a day shall come for the Lord when the spoils shall be divided in your midst. And I will gather all the nations against Jerusalem for battle: the city shall be taken, houses plundered, women ravished; half of the city shall go into exile, but the rest of the people shall not be removed from the city." (Zechariah 14:1-2 NAB)

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  • 黒猫
    Lv 6
    9 years ago

    God condones a lot of things, including rape.

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  • 9 years ago

    I don't see anything in the Bible where God might condone rape. I do see that He doesn't react to it in the way the modern world does. My example is with Dinah.

    http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Genesi...

    What happened is that after Dinah was raped, her brothers Simeon and Levi killed the man, and others who were related to that man. God got mad at them for:

    Genesis 48

    5 “Simeon and Levi are brothers—

    their swords are weapons of violence.

    6 Let me not enter their council,

    let me not join their assembly,

    for they have killed men in their anger

    and hamstrung oxen as they pleased.

    7 Cursed be their anger, so fierce,

    and their fury, so cruel!

    I will scatter them in Jacob

    and disperse them in Israel.

    So, I wonder what would have happened if they allowed Dinah to marry the prince who raped her? I cannot see around the corners God can see around.

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  • Anonymous
    9 years ago

    Numbers 31:18 But all the women children, that have not known a man by lying with him, keep alive for yourselves.

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  • Anonymous
    9 years ago

    In the old testament if you rape a girl (who's a virgin) your punishment is her being forced to marry you against her will.

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