Why weren't the natives of South and Central America annihilated like the ones of North America?

I'm always told the natives of North America, which was invaded by English Colonialists, had died from diseases brought by the English settlers, which is why the natives make up less than 1% of US and Canada's populations(That's what all Americans/Canadians/Australians/New Zealanders, etc say when I ask... show more I'm always told the natives of North America, which was invaded by English Colonialists, had died from diseases brought by the English settlers, which is why the natives make up less than 1% of US and Canada's populations(That's what all Americans/Canadians/Australians/New Zealanders, etc say when I ask them what's the difference between what they did to the natives of their countries and what the Nazis did).

But in South and Central America, all the countries there(well almost all of them) are majority ethnic natives to South America, and the rest are Spanish with some substantial native blood. But the Spanish colonialists had the same European diseases that the English had, and the natives of South and Central America had the same lack of immunity to those diseases that the natives of North America had, so theses natives should be almost completely wiped out like their brothers in the North. But they're not? Why is that?

Oh and btw, if someones comes up with the theory that all the people of South America are White European Spanish, then what's the big deal about immigration, categorizing them as 'Sp$cs', etc...?
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