Mudkip
Lv 6
Mudkip asked in Social ScienceGender Studies · 1 decade ago

Can criminals be victims of crimes themselves?

For instance, can a rapist be murdered? Can a shoplifter be raped? Or does that never happen?

Update:

Glad to see we're all on the same page.

Update 2:

@JD: No, because I do not believe that being a victim of abuse justifies committing murder, which is essentially what Mayella did. I do not believe that being a victim of abuse justifies any kind of behavior that would not be tolerated from a non-abused person, with the exception of PTSD.

Update 3:

And I AGREE that the focus of the novel is, and always should be, the trial (with Boo Radley, the victim of abuse from his mother, as another important theme). I was simply saying that Mama Outlaw's claim that Mayella was a victim of abuse is factually accurate.

Update 4:

@Dark Eyes:

lol, yeah, I've heard stories like that. In high school I knew a bunch of dumb kids who dared each other to approach the police while high... as if that isnt' suspicious behavior...

Update 5:

@JD: Yes, I agree, it was ill-chosen. Sorry about that. I could only think of four crimes off the top of my head (rape, murder, perjury and theft), and I wanted to distance the analogy from rape and perjury, since the book dealt with perjury about rape. I still find Mayella a contemptible character, at any rate.

Update 6:

@Missy-A: If we're going the middle school route, "Takes one to know one."

Update 7:

@Brat: completely agree with you. That wasn't the issue at hand.

12 Answers

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  • 1 decade ago
    Favorite Answer

    A better question could be: do victims of crimes become criminals? Or do criminals feel victimized the way others do?

    And to answer your question, yes, crime effects all people. :D I enjoy your questions MudKip!

  • Anonymous
    4 years ago

    Are you asking this because of the fact it particularly is what you probably did? i think of its each and every now and then accessible with baby abuse inspite of the undeniable fact that i does no longer word it like that. frequently baby victims of abuse will boost up and finally end up doing precisely the comparable element while they exchange into mum and dad. yet there is no clarification for an grownup sufferer to alter right into a criminal except they have been already susceptible to be one. i've got been attacked, sexually assaulted and burgled and the consequence of those issues led me to do voluntary paintings to help different victims who experienced comparable issues. Being a sufferer does not supply every person an excuse to pass out and do the comparable element of others in the event that they felt the would desire to realize this. i'm unsure why any standard guy or woman might experience the choose inspite of the undeniable fact that.

  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    If this is a rhetorical Q., the answer is yes.

    But I don't believe that being a victim absolves them from being a culprit.

    For example,

    if a person robs a bank and causes death of a bank employee and gets gunned down by overzealous police; that person becomes a culprit and a victim. But being a victim in no way decreases the burden of crime upon them.

    The victim has my sympathy. But my sympathy is not superior to my sense of justice.

  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    The point is NOT the fact that a person can be a victim in one instance but a perpetrator in another. The POINT is the idea that the message of that novel shouldn't be diluted by focusing on the poor false accuser who gets a man killed.

    Considering you also suggest this analogy:

    False rape accusations and perjury leading to death: being abused :: shoplifting: being murdered

    It's pretty obvious you're trying to shift the focus to the poor victimized woman, just as mama Outlaw was.

    http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=201008...

    EDIT

    It's possible that your first analogy (which I imagine you'll agree was ill chosen in some respects) and the fact that you were defending Mama Outlaw's answer which clearly DOES emphasize that the woman in this case deserves sympathy and advocacy led me to wrongly suppose you were taking the same offensive position she was. If not, I apologize.

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  • Isa
    Lv 6
    1 decade ago

    Of course.

    But someone who becomes the victim of a crime in the process of committing a different crime is not likely to evoke our sympathies - which has, incidentally, become the focus of several major judicial turning points in our country's past.

    (For one famous example, it is entirely illegal and a major form of assault to booby-trap a property you own to get back at vandals and looters. But even though that's technically legally true, it is nearly impossible to find a jury that will convict or fine the person doing the booby-trapping, because most of us will see that as an ironic form of justice.)

  • 1 decade ago

    Yes they can be. The only crime in which the are incapable of being the victim is the one where they are the perpetrator.

  • 1 decade ago

    Regardless of the innocence of an individual, they themselves can be "victims" of a crime. Yes, crime can happen to criminals.

    Source(s): Reason
  • 1 decade ago

    Oh yea... I heard on the radio the other day where a guy called 911 because during a drug deal, his drugs got stolen, and the perp didn't "pay" for the drugs...

    What an idiot...O.o

  • 1 decade ago

    yes

  • Roger
    Lv 5
    1 decade ago

    YEs they can. Except a white male because we are the priviledged group so can only be oppressors. lol j/k

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