Jehovah's Witnesses: Why doesn't Thomas get rebuked by Jesus in John 20 for blasphemy?

In John 20:28, John refers to Jesus in Greek as "Ho kyrios moy kai ho theos moy". This translates literally as "the Lord of me and THE God of me". Why does Jesus, in John 20:29, affirm Thomas for having come to this realization? If Jesus really wasn't the Lord and THE God of Thomas, why... show more In John 20:28, John refers to Jesus in Greek as "Ho kyrios moy kai ho theos moy". This translates literally as "the Lord of me and THE God of me".

Why does Jesus, in John 20:29, affirm Thomas for having come to this realization? If Jesus really wasn't the Lord and THE God of Thomas, why didn't Jesus correct him for making either a false assumption or a blasphemous statement?
Update: ***Wendi888, I did not say this verse proved anything, I simply asked why Jesus didn't correct Thomas.
9 answers 9