should all christian believers be refused to "hug" the opposite sex?
on the basis a few verses in the bible?
1 Cor. 7: 1
1 Now concerning the things whereof ye wrote unto me: It is good for a man not to touch a woman.
what about this verse? what is it prohibiting?
1 Tim. 5: 22
22 Lay hands suddenly on no man, neither be partaker of other men’s sins: keep thyself pure.
- 1 decade agoFavorite Answer
The phrase "to touch a woman" was a common Jewish euphemism for sexual intercourse. This phrase was not meant to be taken literally. If you took it as such, then Adam and Eve would have been the last people on the face of the earth! The phrase can be easily explained by looking at some Old Testament passages.
"God said unto him [Abimelech] in a dream, Yea, I know that thou didst this in the integrity of thy heart; for I also withheld thee from sinning against me: therefore allowed I thee not to touch her." (Here was a case where adultery could have been committed within the family of Abraham. But God did not allow Abimelech to "touch" or to have a sexual relationship with Sarah.)
Boaz said, "Let thine eyes be on the field that they do reap, and go thou after them. Have I not charged the young men that they shall not touch thee?"
(Boaz had a desire to keep Ruth pure.)
"So he that goeth into his neighbor's wife; whosoever toucheth her shall not be innocent."
Verse 1 isn't talking about a tap on the shoulder or a hug, but a sexual relationship. Paul is saying it is a good thing for Christians not to be involved in a sexual relationship outside of marriage, that is, it is good to be single. He does not say, however, that singleness is the only good condition or that marriage is in any way wrong or inferior to singleness.
1 Timothy is a pastoral epistle. When the epistles that we know as the pastoral epistles refer to the laying on of hands, it is consistent for us to note that it has to do with ordination into the ministry.
Go back and read 1 Timothy 4:14 and also 2 Timothy 1:6
The laying on of hands had a somewhat broad understanding throughout Scripture of identification, of a symbolic gesture of affirmation of someone as belonging to God, and as a recipient of the power of God, the blessing of God. But most particularly here in the pastoral epistles it refers to that very unique time and place when hands were laid upon a man to set him apart for the ministry. It was done, for example, in Acts 6. You read verses 3 to 6 and when they chose out deacons, they laid hands on them to identify with them in their ministry. You go to Acts 13:3 and when they separated Paul and Barnabas to the work of preaching the gospel to the Gentiles, after praying and fasting they laid hands on them to set them apart to the ministry.
And so, what Paul has to be talking about in the context here is the original ordination of a man to ministry. And he says this, "Don't do this hastily." In chapter 3 verse 10 he says, in effect, the same thing, "Don't hastily put a person in the role of a deacon unless they have first been proven." And here he's saying essentially the same thing, thorough investigation should preclude any ordination. This is very important. This is where the whole process of ordination comes from.
Scripture must be interpreted by Scripture. The best commentary on the Bible is other parts of the Bible. As Christians, we must study the fullness of it, not pick verses out of their context and try to make them mean what we want them to mean. The only way you can understand Scripture is by reading the verses around them. Read the whole book for an even better understanding and brushing up on your cultural history would help a lot too. Do the work.
Get a good Study Bible (John MacArthur Study Bible is great) that gives you references to other verses that speak about the same things in other parts of Scripture. I also highly recommend the Nelsons Cross Reference Guide to the Bible.
God bless.Source(s): The Bible www.preceptaustin.org
- 1 decade ago
No. When people cite passages from the bible, they usually take them out of historical and geographical context. when in the bible it says man shall not lay with another man, it is not saying that man shall not be gay. what this is refering to is unnatural acts. things consider to be wrong based on the observations and contemplation of the writers of that time. if you look whrre it says man shall not lie with man, it also says man shall not be adulterous, incestuos, etc when the bible says this it is referring to a practice by roman soldiers: at the time middle aged roman soldiers would have sex with 12, 13, 14, 15 ,16 year old roman boys in the bath houses. so what it really means is that man shall not be a petephile and lay with boys also notice that the bible never makes a reference to lesbians which was a common practice at the time on the island of Lesbos which is where we get the word
also there are many passages in the bible that could be seen as very very in favor of homosexuality
- GregoryLv 71 decade ago
no the verses you listed have nothing to do with that
its prohibiting sex out side of marriage as the next verse shows
1Co 7:2 Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband.
1 timothy 5:22
do not participate in sins that men of the world do
- no1home2dayLv 71 decade ago
WOW! Talk about twisting things! Even a pretzel maker couldn't twist these as badly as you did!
Your mocking has been duly noted, and will be held against you on Judgment day!
- How do you think about the answers? You can sign in to vote the answer.
- Anonymous1 decade ago
you my friend are an **** nut, may god smite you <3Source(s): god bless
- Anonymous1 decade ago
Paul hated women. he was probably a closeted gay.