Where in the bible does Jesus say anything about homosexuality?

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looking for Jesus only references about homosexuality, not lev, not paul not anyone or book but Jesus references only please.
thank you =)
Update : RJ actually Jesus does mention not to force oneself onto another or to ...show more
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If an individual wants to match Jesus' expectations in inter-personal relationships, then he/she might wish to fall back on his general ethical teachings:
To treat and value one's neighbor as one would wish to be treated.
To not be exploitive, dominating, manipulative, controlling, violent, or abusive towards others.
To, above all, not abuse children.

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  • noetic answered 4 years ago
    I have a pamphlet about that. On the cover it says, "What Does Jesus Say About Homosexuality?" On the inside....it's completely blank.
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  • sammy answered 4 years ago
    Sounds like the answer is no where. I wish the right wing Christians would lay off, but they score political points denigrating gays. Although the Jesus does not tell people not to boil their dog in oil, or punch someone in the face, or trip an elderly person, etc. etc. The bible or Jesus cannot mention everything. People need to go by their own sensibilities and conscience
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  • Octoberken answered 4 years ago
    The part where he's kissing judas is pretty hot.
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  • I'm Perfect answered 4 years ago
    nowhere...
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  • babbie answered 4 years ago
    I'm sorry that I'm not as up on chapter and verse as I could be, but I do know that I've read Jesus saying that some men are made eunuchs from birth. That's the only time I recall His saying anything about it. Since He didn't give it any more importance than that, I think the rest of us should just let it go and get on with our lives. Being gay is not a sin. How gay people deal with it is between them and God. God bless.
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  • pygonza answered 4 years ago
    No, never mentioned by Jesus. It never made the top ten list of offenses. Adultery is mentioned often. Divorce and remarriage is condemned. Bible thumpers steer clear of that one. It would likely impact revenue if they did. Homosexuality is a convenient whipping boy, because it is a minority of offenders.
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  • PT's Swan Lake answered 4 years ago
    Some believe Jesus referred to gays under the term translated as "eunuch."

    From http://www.homosexualeunuchsandthebible....

    < Who were the homosexuals in the Bible? Jesus said this: “For there are eunuchs who were born so from their mother’s womb; and there are eunuchs who were made eunuchs by men; and there are eunuchs who made themselves eunuchs for the sake of the kingdom of heaven. To him who can comprehend, that is enough.” (Matthew 19:12 Lamsa). The Aramaic word m'haym-ne (plural) is translated as eunuchs here, but the root meanings of this word in this form are: trusted ones, faithful ones and believers. These "trusted ones" were also servants such as chamberlains, eunuchs and officers. In addition, m’haym-ne meant homosexual males because they were trusted around women that were married or were not of their family. They weren’t a threat in committing adultery with another man’s wife or in having pre marital sex with the women of the nation.

    The born eunuchs in the above verse from Matthew are referring to homosexual males. The second part of the verse says: "and there are eunuchs who were made eunuchs by men;" These would be the man-made or castrated eunuchs. Also, the eunuchs who were made eunuchs by men were those appointed by the king to be servants in the king’s palace. Some of these were prisoners of war, captives, and exiles (Isaiah 39:7 Lamsa). The third part of this verse should be read as: "and there are believers who made themselves castrated ones (or celibate ones) for the sake of the kingdom of heaven." I have personally seen the word m’haym-na (singular) mean: a homosexual, a castrated male and a believer in the Bible. I haven’t seen m’haym-na carry the meaning of a celibate yet. But perhaps m’haym-na carried the meaning of a celibate from the males who were castrated. The last part of the verse is referring to believers that castrated themselves (or perhaps became celibate) for the sake of the kingdom of heaven.

    Throughout the ancient nations that included Egypt, Babylon, Assyria and Persia; homosexuals were exalted to such positions as eunuchs that watched the women of the harem. Because of the mistrust of men, heterosexual or bi-sexual men were castrated; but homosexual males didn’t need to be. Eunuchs also had a recognized place in homosexual prostitution, and youths chosen as catamitic favorites were sometimes castrated. Homosexuality was long confused with eunuchry. Like effeminacy and hermaphroditism, eunuchry was sometimes thought of as creating a woman-man. The following verses will show that the Bible defines the trusted ones (or eunuchs) as homosexual males.

    “Now God gave Daniel grace and mercy in the presence of the chief of the eunuchs.” (Daniel 1:9 Lamsa). The Hebrew word khe-sed means loving-kindness, mercy and favor, and is translated as grace in this verse. The Hebrew word ra-kha-mim is translated as mercy here, but means love. Daniel was given favor and love (plural) in the presence of the chief of the eunuchs. Most likely the intimate word ra-kha-mim, meaning love, was given to Daniel because he was handsome (See Dan. 1:4).

    A second evidence where the Bible shows that eunuchs are gay males is in (Daniel 14:2 NAB), which says: "Daniel was the king's favorite and was held in higher esteem than any of the friends of the king." In the Aramaic OT, the word friends is replaced with the Aramaic word rakh-maw-hi, which means lovers. Rakh-maw-hi is from the singular Aramaic word rakh-ma, which means love. Chapters 13-14 are in the Catholic canon of scripture. The Aramaic OT contains fourteen chapters of Daniel. The Aramaic text of Daniel also has “the song of the three children” (Or, “Prayer of Hananiah and his companions” – Aramaic name for that portion) after verse twenty-three of Chapter Three. Dr. Lamsa, being a Protestant, just left out the additional parts of Daniel and Esther, plus the Deuterocanical books. Dr. Lamsa did leave a extra sentence in verse 23 that is not in the Masoretic text, but in the Aramaic and Greek text of Daniel. The OT book of Daniel in either the Aramaic or Greek text agree more with each other in regards to content than they do with the Masoretic text; so they are a possible faithful witness of the original content of Daniel. Forgeries are not usually the same in different nations with different languages.

    The translators of the New American Bible translated the Greek word sym-bi-o-tes as favorite, but that is incorrect. Sym-bi-o-tes, according to Liddell & Scott means: one who lives with, companion. That matches with the Aramaic text, which says that Daniel lived with the king. Separately, the Greek Old Testament deleted many words that are included in those extra two chapters. The Septuagint also deleted many chapters (and / or sentences) in other books, such as Chronicles and Samuel. ...

    Now, is this verse taken out of context?: “For there are eunuchs who were born so from their mother’s womb; and there are eunuchs who were made eunuchs by men; and there are eunuchs who made themselves eunuchs for the sake of the kingdom of heaven. To him who can comprehend, that is enough.” (Matthew 19:12 Lamsa). This verse is found when Jesus is speaking about marriage between a man and a woman. Then Jesus goes on and quotes this verse talking about people that it wouldn’t be good for them to marry because of the way they were born, or because of a situation, or because of their choice. - In order to get a correct interpretation of a verse, you have to know the definition of words and the way the verse is used in the context. But also, in regards to the New Testament Gospels (Matthew, Mark, Luke, & John), Jesus said a lot of things that appear to be out of context when he was asked questions; so we have to go by the definitions for the word m'haym-na- Eunuch. Now this verse is actually not out-of-context in regards to males that it wouldn’t be good for them to marry a woman (wife). It would not be good for a homosexual male to marry a woman because he lacks the sexual perophone receptors that enable him to be attracted to women. He has more of the X-chromosome. It should be noted that a homosexual is impotent toward a woman. The other two reasons why a male wouldn’t be able to marry a woman are obvious by the meaning of the word m’haym-na and its associations.

    A couple other things that need to be pointed out is, the Aramaic word il-mi-saw, translated in Matthew 19:10 as “to marry,” means "to take." Jesus was talking about males that it wouldn’t be good for them to take a woman. The other thing is when Jesus talks about the eunuchs that it wouldn’t be good for them to take a woman, he says: “…To him who can comprehend, that is enough.” That last phrase is better translated as: "Whoever is able to receive it, let him receive it." The root word here spaq, also metaphorically means to "receive with the mind," "accept." The eunuchs not sleeping with women not only receive it, but they accept it. It is unlikely that Jesus’ reference to a born eunuch is referring to a straight impotent man. I can’t picture a straight man accepting his impotence if he is lusting after a woman. Also, a lot of gay males marry a woman because they don’t know the truth about what the Hebrew and Aramaic Bible teaches. A lot of the males that are impotent toward their wives are homosexuals. >

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  • Gastounet answered 4 years ago
    Jesus and John were lovers dear. The word "homosexuality" did not exist at that time.

    Source(s):

    John the "disciple whom Jesus loved" (John 13:23, 19:26, 21:7,20)
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  • Boomer Rat answered 4 years ago
    The main sources that people use to support the interpretation that homosexuality is taboo in Christian culture are Leviticus and the Old Testament. There is AFAIK, nothing that Jesus said specifically regarding homosexuality.
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  • Solly Llama NOR★CAL R&S answered 4 years ago
    "Get behind me, Satan."
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  • Ellie answered 4 years ago
    how does being gay have to do anything with religion
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  • Greg F answered 4 years ago
    It prob wont be blatant(someone wont just say homosexuality is sinful), youll have to read "between the lines"

    Christianity finds homosexuality sinful, BUT, only the homosexual actions, not the feelings some people have toward the same sex(homosexual orientation), no one can control their feelings... so, their feelings cant be sinful
    and its sinful because, homosexuality isnt life giving(what this means is that if two people of the same sex has sexual intercourse, it is impossible to create life[have a baby])

    Source(s):

    Religion class(best teacher ever!!)
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  • r j answered 4 years ago
    Jesus defined marriage in Matthew as being between one man and one woman, reiterating passages from Genesis.

    But I have a question for you: Jesus never specifically addressed bestiality, or pedophilia, or many other behaviors, so will you now say those behaviors are okay, too? Do you see the flaw in your logic?
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  • Tyler J(one of Jehovahs Witness) answered 4 years ago
    1 corinthians 6:9 and 10 forbids homosexuality. Not sure if jesus said it or not sorry.
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  • CharChar answered 4 years ago
    God made the determination that having homosexual sex is a sin. Jesus, the Son of God, does not have the power and authority to supersede God's laws. The fact that Jesus never mentioned it is proof that God's law is the final authority.
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  • Dogmatic Resonance answered 4 years ago
    he doesn't.

    but it talks about Soddom and Gommora. homosexuality was practiced there. which is where sodomise came from

    Source(s):

    knowledge
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  • Utika Smith answered 4 years ago
    I find it hilarious that only child molesters ask this question...

    Source(s):

    YOU!!!
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