How does one prove that John 1:1 does NOT = the bible?
how does one witness to the false interpretations of christians when they teach what they think is biblical truth?
1 That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have looked upon, and our hands have handled, of the Word of life;
clearly this verse is describing Jesus, not a book
1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. The same was in the beginning with God. All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.
i think it was david that had a point so here is the actual verse i shouldve used. this question was first posted after a similar question was answered.
People the bible is "not" Jesus. even if Jesus is the "word" or LOGOS.
- Dr. DLv 71 decade agoFavorite Answer
The "Word" in John chapter 1 clearly refers to Jesus and not the Bible.
John describes the Word as something that "we have heard", and if it was a book he would have said "we have read". You hear a person, not a book.
John describes the Word as that "which we have looked upon and our hands have handled". The Bible wasn't even compiled yet. The Bible as a book, didn't exist until the end of the 4th century!
There is also the historic argument. The "Word" was never interpreted as the Bible in early Christianity. In fact that wacky interpretation wasn't used by Christians until the modern era.
- ?Lv 71 decade ago
Clearly that verse is First John 1:1, not John 1:1.
John 1:1 reads: "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."
In any case, Jesus is the Word.
- Capernaum12Lv 51 decade ago
John 1.1 is describing the Logos (pronounced Lawgoss) which is God at work ... self-expressed towards the world ... as distinguished from God as absolute origin. The Logos "was God" but also distinct from God since from the beginning he is "with God." The real surprise was the Logos (the Word) became flesh ... a person with a name, Jesus. For John ... the one "through" whom all things came to be is not Jesus of Nazareth but the Logos who became Jesus by Incarnation.
It is true that the term Logos had a wide range of meanings ... which included word and also content of an argument or speech, reason, or explanation. The Greek Stoics emphasized the Logos as reason and believed that the whole universe operated according to the Logos/Reason because it permeates everything. And they thought that a small part was found in people making it possible for us to understand and live in accord with the universe.
The Jewish writers of the Wisdom of Solomon and Sirach (which influences John's writing in the prologue much more than Genesis does) found useful this Greek thought on the Logos governing the world. They saw wisdom as the self-expression of God and since the Torah expressed God's will for the world ... it wasn't too difficult to regard wisdom, Torah, and Logos as various ways to understand how God is related to creation.
By the time John was written ... in circles open to Greek thought ... the theology of wisdom and the theology of the Logos were almost interchangable ... in both cases ... wisdom or the Logos was the Reality through which God created and governs the world.
- Anonymous1 decade ago
John 1:1 shows Jesus as fully human and fully God;
but also the Bible is called the Word of God.
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- 1 decade ago
clearly speaks about jesus. the same as "in the beginning was the word, and the word was with God and the word was God" this describes jesus as being God. also the baptism; some books say "baptize them in the name of the father the son and the holy spirit" says name, no names; then find the verse that says "baptize them in the name of jesus christ" that's the name. but some lazy people who didn't want to study just took the easy way. If the bible was written by delusional people... I wish I could be that delusional to write that good. and for those looking for evidence, God said earth was round long before people believed was flat. also said He hanged it over nothing, long before people believed was being carried by atlas or a giant turtle or elephants hehehe. Just like in school; the knowledge is there if you want to study, nobody is going to stuff it into your head ;). cheers :D.Source(s): my powerful mind!
- 1 decade ago
this is what the NIV study Bible says, John 1:1, the title above the Chapter is the Word became flesh, and reads" In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was with God in the beginning." this clearly states that Jesus is the Word, and you are correct. have a great day rachelSource(s): NIV study Bible
- PaulCypLv 71 decade ago
There are no references to the Bible in the Bible, since the Bible, as a compiled book, did not exist until 300 years after the texts were written, and the writers had no way of knowing that the Catholic Church would someday include their writings in a book it compiled. Biblical references to "the scriptures" obviously referred to the Hebrew Scriptures, which were the only scriptures the writers knew.
- Anonymous1 decade ago
Compare John 1:1, 3 with Gensis 1:1
I don't know who told you John 1:1 is 'the Bible'. I've been a Christian for 45 years and never once heard that.
- Anonymous1 decade ago
There are Protestants who attempt to make the case that the "word" spoken of in John 1 is the bible. It isn't true, it's based on the unhealthy fixation Protestants have on their own personal interpretation of the bible.
- MoondoggyLv 71 decade ago
John says that the "Word" was in the beginning, is God, made all things, is alive, was attested by John, was rejected by his own, was made flesh and dwelt among us, is the one of which John said, "He that cometh after me is preferred before me: for he was before me."
No, that's not talking about a book. In fact, there is no precedent for ever interpreting the Greek "logos" as "Word," much less the Bible. "Logos" means a lot of things, but "word" isn't one of them.